i know this thread is old, but for anyone that thinks you get dealt aces exactly every 221 hands, that's not how it works. it's an average number. over the course of a large sample size, you will expect to get aces (or any pair) 221 times. they key words here are 'average' and 'large sample size'.
in op's thread, 230 hands or even 300 hands is not a large sample size and there for not getting aces dealt in either of those example sizes is not out of the ordinary. lets look at it another way. lets say, after 300 hands, in the next 50 hands, op is dealt aces twice. well, 350 hands is clearly under the expected 442 hands one is needed to be dealt aces twice, right? so, what does this mean? is aces now rigged in op's favor because they got it dealt twice in such a small sample size? of course not because, again, you have to look at sample size.
lets look at a more simpler example: a 6 sided dice. what are the odds of you rolling any number? 1/6, right? by that logic, you should roll each number once with 6 rolls, right? but that doesn't always happen. why? by the numbers, it should be 1/6 but, out of 6 rolls, and rolled 2-5-5-1-6. that dice must be rigged, right?
or lets flip a coin, which is 1/2 that you land on either heads or tails. so, out of 2 flips, you should get one of each, correct? but you flip a coin 2x and it lands on heads 2x. i guess you better throw that rigged coin away, huh?
obviously, you wouldn't throw either the dice or coin away, but that's the difference between these not being rigged and poker being "rigged"? sample size. lets go back to the example of not getting aces in 300 hands, is that a large enough sample size? well, is flipping a coin 2x a large enough size? what about 10x? can you expect to get an even 50/50 result every time you flip a coin 10x?
