Odds question-need math whiz

[svenoaks]

For the flop bet, what would be the required implied odds necessary to justify calling a bet made by a made set if I have an open ended straight draw and a backdoor flush draw? I just can't seem to wrap my head around how the villian's chances of filling up comes into the equation.

Thanks for any help. I was recently involved in a play like this, made the straight on the turn and got over 5.4:1 on my money for the flop call. I'm thinking it wasn't enough and I sucked out. Thoughts?

 

[baudib1]

you have 27.5% equity vs. a set if you are open-ended with a BDFD assuming he doesn't have one of your flush cards. If he has a BDFD himself (say ThTd on Ts9h2h board) it drops to 26%.

it's hard to figure implied odds usually but I'd assume someone with a set isn't folding so you should win the whole stack if you hit. If you make your straight on the turn, he has 23% to fill up or make quads.

I'd call 5.4-1 with a gutshot let alone an OESD.

 

[baudib1]

also you don't need a math whiz, you just need pokerstove/propokertools.com