coolDadJimbo
Rock Star
Silver Level
hey there....
so, i wanted to clarify that i have the implied odds calculation correct...
so, implied odds isn't the pot odds of the present bet size.... it is the size of the future pot that could be won if the current bet is called and you hit your card.... correct?
but, when considering the implied odds you also have to consider the stack size of the bettor.... like, say:
i have a flush draw on the flop.... so, i have 9 out of the remaining 47 cards that would give me the nuts.... or 9:38 odds... or a <20% chance i will get a card i need...
so, if the pot is 100 and the bet is 50 making the pot 150, my pot odds would be 50:150 or 1:3... compared to my odds of getting my card this might not be a good call... comparing the pot odds of 1:3 to card odds of 1:4...
but looking at implied odds... my present call of 50 to a 150 pot could win me a bigger pot on the river.... say 50 now could win a pot of 800 if i hit my cards... so, my implied odds for the present bet could be 50:800 or 1:16... which would make my present card odds of 1:4 ok and a good call..... (provided that they have enough chips to create a pot of 800)
is this correct?
but, also we want to consider their stack size... say, i have 4 outs or 4:43 or 1:10 card odds.... if they bet 50 into a 100 pot the pot would be 150... but to make it profitable they must have a stack size of at least 10x (card odds) the bet for me to call.... say, at least 500.... so, if they only had 200 left behind i couldn't get paid the 10x the bet to make the implied odds of 1:10 profitable.....
am i getting this right?
thanks in advance for any comments
so, i wanted to clarify that i have the implied odds calculation correct...
so, implied odds isn't the pot odds of the present bet size.... it is the size of the future pot that could be won if the current bet is called and you hit your card.... correct?
but, when considering the implied odds you also have to consider the stack size of the bettor.... like, say:
i have a flush draw on the flop.... so, i have 9 out of the remaining 47 cards that would give me the nuts.... or 9:38 odds... or a <20% chance i will get a card i need...
so, if the pot is 100 and the bet is 50 making the pot 150, my pot odds would be 50:150 or 1:3... compared to my odds of getting my card this might not be a good call... comparing the pot odds of 1:3 to card odds of 1:4...
but looking at implied odds... my present call of 50 to a 150 pot could win me a bigger pot on the river.... say 50 now could win a pot of 800 if i hit my cards... so, my implied odds for the present bet could be 50:800 or 1:16... which would make my present card odds of 1:4 ok and a good call..... (provided that they have enough chips to create a pot of 800)
is this correct?
but, also we want to consider their stack size... say, i have 4 outs or 4:43 or 1:10 card odds.... if they bet 50 into a 100 pot the pot would be 150... but to make it profitable they must have a stack size of at least 10x (card odds) the bet for me to call.... say, at least 500.... so, if they only had 200 left behind i couldn't get paid the 10x the bet to make the implied odds of 1:10 profitable.....
am i getting this right?
thanks in advance for any comments
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