This is a discussion on Question please about odds within the online poker forums, in the General Poker section; First time poster here. I hope this is the correct venue and if not, please move accordingly.
In a 3 way hold'em pot, the hands were:
According to poker player hand calculator, the J4 is more of a favorite to suck out versus the two Kings.
My question is "why".
Obviously the J4 could catch the 2 outer of either J just as the KK could catch one of his Kings. In addition the J4 could catch two running 4s, but since that happens like every 900 hands, that very small advantage is far out weighed by the fact that both a J and a K could turn/river and give the Kings the victory.
So, my question is why after the flop in that 3 way hand, is the J4 more likely to win compared to the KK?
I had the 66 in the above scenario. After a brutal J on the river, I checked the card player hand calculator to see how far ahead I was post flop. That is when my fyzzy logic caused me to question why the J4 was ahead of the KK in the 3 way pot versus my set of sixes. My simple math told me each hand was about 8% to win. I didn't realize that 2 running flush cards would show up 5% of the time which left me with 79% to win in this 3 way mega pot. For the record, I wouldn't play J4 or J6.
Were you all-in before the flop? If not, how did all three of you end up all-in on a monotone flop without a spade amongst you? With a set and a low enough SPR, you probably have to call even if you know you're against the flush, but that "low enough SPR" qualification means you put in way too much of your stack preflop with a small pair.
About the only sane way that I could see this hand making sense is that you're very low in chips, open-shove with the 66s and get called by the KK. Then the J4s hand comes along from the BB because of pot odds (would still require pretty short stacks).
Edit: Were you not all-in? Did this check down? There's a lot of information missing here.
I get no respect. When I move all-in, people from other tables call.