J
jeffred1111
Visionary
Silver Level
FL .10/.20 (loose table with almost any A being raised unless in early position)
Let's say you are in late position and there has been two limpers in early position followed by a raise in middle position. You look down at 9Ts on the button and cold-call. SB folds and BB calls. Original limpers all fold. (We thus have the raiser, Hero and BB who see the flop) Pot = 1BB+1BB+1BB+.5SB+1BB = .85 cents
Flop comes
Q28 rainbow. It is checked to OR who bets. We thus have 1:8.5 pot odds, but we are a 10.75 dog of making our gutshot. A call here would be incorrect in most cases, but we figure that Original raiser can have any Ace (and thus probably hasn't hit) or he has hit hard (Q with good kicker, set, etc.), and thus we are likely to get payed off later on if we hit (maybe a BB next round and on the final street). We cannot approximate the percentages on the fly, but OR probably has two overcards to our meager 9Ts even if he hasn't connected.
Figuring we are also most likely drawing to the cold hard nuts, our odds, if we figure that we can extract a BB more, at the very least (maybe two from each opponent), we are almost exactly 10.75 to 1, making this a correct call (with the intention of folding on the turn if our hand hasn't improved). But what if original raiser has that Ace that hasn't hit, do we raise here hoping to take it down (or at least boost our chances of winning by forcing the BB out) ? Will the original raiser fold this ? Can we really think in terms of implied odds in this situation since even if we hit and original raiser hasn't, we are likely not to get payed off.
Let's say you are in late position and there has been two limpers in early position followed by a raise in middle position. You look down at 9Ts on the button and cold-call. SB folds and BB calls. Original limpers all fold. (We thus have the raiser, Hero and BB who see the flop) Pot = 1BB+1BB+1BB+.5SB+1BB = .85 cents
Flop comes
Q28 rainbow. It is checked to OR who bets. We thus have 1:8.5 pot odds, but we are a 10.75 dog of making our gutshot. A call here would be incorrect in most cases, but we figure that Original raiser can have any Ace (and thus probably hasn't hit) or he has hit hard (Q with good kicker, set, etc.), and thus we are likely to get payed off later on if we hit (maybe a BB next round and on the final street). We cannot approximate the percentages on the fly, but OR probably has two overcards to our meager 9Ts even if he hasn't connected.
Figuring we are also most likely drawing to the cold hard nuts, our odds, if we figure that we can extract a BB more, at the very least (maybe two from each opponent), we are almost exactly 10.75 to 1, making this a correct call (with the intention of folding on the turn if our hand hasn't improved). But what if original raiser has that Ace that hasn't hit, do we raise here hoping to take it down (or at least boost our chances of winning by forcing the BB out) ? Will the original raiser fold this ? Can we really think in terms of implied odds in this situation since even if we hit and original raiser hasn't, we are likely not to get payed off.