$3.40 NLHE STT: AKs pre 50/100

[FastandFurious]

poker stars No Limit Hold'em Tournament - t50.00/t100.00 Blinds - 8 players - View hand 1247508
DeucesCracked Poker Videos Hand History Converter

Hero (SB): t2321.00 23.21 BBs - VPIP: 15, PFR: 12, 3B: 4, AF: 3.2, hands: 125009
BB: t1763.00 17.63 BBs - VPIP: 48, PFR: 10, 3B: 0, AF: 4.5, Hands: 62
UTG: t1255.00 12.55 BBs - VPIP: 23, PFR: 10, 3B: 2, AF: 1.2, Hands: 428
UTG+1: t910.00 9.10 BBs - VPIP: 16, PFR: 3, 3B: 0, AF: 3.0, Hands: 37
MP1: t1232.00 12.32 BBs - VPIP: 29, PFR: 3, 3B: 3, AF: 1.9, Hands: 211
MP2: t1585.00 15.85 BBs - VPIP: 21, PFR: 5, 3B: 10, AF: Infinity, Hands: 38
CO: t3424.00 34.24 BBs - VPIP: 51, PFR: 7, 3B: 0, AF: 3.5, Hands: 43
BTN: t1010.00 10.10 BBs - VPIP: 28, PFR: 5, 3B: 0, AF: 0.5, Hands: 43

Pre Flop: (t150) Hero is SB with K :spade: A :spade:
UTG raises to t300, 2 folds, MP2 raises to t1585, 2 folds, ??

What's ur play? Basically, I'd like to have some help on putting them on ranges based on their stats so it would be easier to find a clear answer using pokerstove..

 

[the lab man]

with A/K one raise I call, 2 raises I Fold

He could be doing this with a lot of hands Ts and up A/Js

But you need a much stronger hand to CALL with.

 

[Pascal-lf]

Call, he'll do this with QQ+ AK+ at the tighest so you've got odds against that range to call

 

[jbbb]

I don't understand how 3bet% can be higher than PFR?
Surely a 3-bet counts as raising preflop?

 

[Pascal-lf]

Sample size

To expand, you can only 3bet when you are facing a raise in front of you, whereas PFR includes anytime you raise/3bet.

 

[jbbb]

Sample size

To expand, you can only 3bet when you are facing a raise in front of you, whereas PFR includes anytime you raise/3bet.

That still has me stumped. If he 3bets 10% and his PFR is 5% that can't be right because the 10% he 3bets goes towards PFR % aswell?
Please explain what i'm missing

 

[ben_rhyno]

10% 3-bet refers to 10%/the 5% of times he opens for a raise (PFR) which would be 0.5% of hands played. (I think)

 

[Pascal-lf]

That still has me stumped. If he 3bets 10% and his PFR is 5% that can't be right because the 10% he 3bets goes towards PFR % aswell?
Please explain what i'm missing

Say there have been 10 possible situations where he *could* 3bet, and he has 3bet once - his 3bet % will be 10%.

However, if there have been 200 chances for him to raise (including the 10 where he could 3bet) and he only ever done that one 3bet then his PFR will be 0.5%

Just an example

 

[aaron_jd]

I'd likely call here. AKs is obviously a very strong hand preflop.

 

[jbbb]

Say there have been 10 possible situations where he *could* 3bet, and he has 3bet once - his 3bet % will be 10%.

However, if there have been 200 chances for him to raise (including the 10 where he could 3bet) and he only ever done that one 3bet then his PFR will be 0.5%

Just an example

ah yes I understand now. Cheers