Personally I almost never just complete from the SB (on occasion with a small pp and a couple of really bad limpers maybe). I'll steal the line from Tommy Angelo in Elements of Poker (now available in ebook formats!!!), Why would I pay 1/2 price for something I don't want for free?Yeah, I know that stat pops out at me too. I think frequently I feel like I'm "priced-in" by having several limpers or an early small raiser and several callers before the action gets to me. In my mind, (probably flawed ), if the pot is laying me like 4 or 5 to 1 on a call, I'll usually make the call. I think that's going to be the first thing I try to adjust. Still, I'm NOT completing 80% of the time there. What is a reasonable % for completing from the SB?
Oh hey worst advice ever, I haven't seen you in a while.Personally I think you should be 3-betting way more from the blinds, and basically play a little looser..
Oh hey worst advice ever, I haven't seen you in a while.
1) Players at micro limits usually do not steal as much as they should. Thus, 3-bet bluffing them isn't super effective.Oh oh, the voice of dissent.... OK so either side, why should I either 3-bet more from the blinds, or not? A little insight into your reasoning/logic would be greatly appreciated. I DO really struggle with blind play, so....?
1) Players at micro limits usually do not steal as much as they should. Thus, 3-bet bluffing them isn't super effective.
2) Playing loose puts you in more complicated situations, and most of your win rate comes from your big hands (JJ+, AQ+). Loosening up "in general" is bad advice. Stealing more on the button or isolating more bad limpers on the button is good advice. I wouldn't really want your VPIP to move, 14% is fine for full ring. But I'd like to see you move more of that 14% to late position, and less of it from the blinds & UTG.
Also, stop thinking about your stats. Statements like "Still doesn't seem like I was 3-betting enough" are kinda dumb. The real question you should be asking is something more along the lines of "Am I 3-betting the right hands in the right situations?" If you're worried about your 3-bet/preflop game, then post some 3-bet situations in the hand analysis forum. But trying to move your 3-bet statistic up to some "optimal level" is bound to get you into trouble. See the difference? One way of thinking is just moving your stats to some level you think they should be, which is bad. The other way of thinking is trying to improve your preflop game so that you understand all the nuances that go into making preflop decisions, and that's the good way of trying to improve.
At 10nl where he's struggling he's playing 11/7. Loosening up when IP and tightening up in the blinds should help.
No, I only play full-ring. Sorry if I wasn't clear about that. I did play 6-max very early in my career, but quickly realized that I'm FAR too much of a nit for that game. Consequently, the stats above are all for full-ring only.
For those of you who responded with tips/advice and/or explained your reasoning of different concepts, thanks a lot. I currently plan to drop down to .05nl where I'm at least already winning, make the adjustments, and then move back up to .10nl once I get comfortable playing this new approach.
Regarding 3-betting, I didn't mean to imply that I should shoot for a certain %. It just seems like I don't 3-bet nearly enough - neither at .05nl, nor at .10nl. Currently I'm only 3-betting Q-Q+ and A-Ks. Sometimes not even Q-Q.
Clearly this can't be right since I frequently run into opponents with a PFR of 25% or higher. Lately I'm thinking that my range needs to not be so static (as it currently is), but should be more flexible and more villain dependant.
I'm not sure if I'm explaing my thinking clearly (nothing new there ), but here goes.... Say you decide to 3-bet NOT a set range of hands, but a certain % of villains PFR range, what would your % of villains range be to 3-bet him? Are you 3-betting him with, say, the top 30% of his PFR range? More? Less?
For example in two separate hands v. 2 separate villains....
Hand 1 villain's PFR over reasonable sample is 30%. Using my criteria of 3-betting him with the top 30% of his range, that would put me 3-betting the top 10% of hands v. this villain.
Hand 2 villain's PFR is much tighter, say 10%. Against this villain, using the same top 30% of his range criteria, I'd only be 3-betting him with only the top 3% of all hands.
Does any of this make sense? Or, am I way off-base here? I realize there is much more to it than this, position, table dynamics, villain aggression, etc,etc, etc. But, just as a general guideline, do you think this is a valid line of reasoning? Again, I'm NOT shooting for a certain % of all hands to 3-bet. Rather I'm searching for the proper % of villains PFR to use as a criteria for 3-betting.
Post hands in the hand analysis forum, you will hear great explanations and refine your game a ton... dummy.It does me a lot of good to hear different explainations/ thoughts behind the actions rather than to simply say "Do this, dummy."
Post hands in the hand analysis forum, you will hear great explanations and refine your game a ton... dummy.