At first, seems like your run of the mill 5NL gonna 5NL type hand, but..... okay so there's no but. Villain probably called otf because he was praying for one of 2 to 5 outs to bink moreso than he thought whatever dubious hand he 3bet light with and then needed to see a flop for the pot
odds offered was still in pretty good shape.
YGM is cbetting like 90% of his range OTF and everyone knows this, consequently, most vils will call 1 with QQ JJ TT OTF.
What is hero's perceived 4bet range with a player he has 52 hands with? 4bets among reggish 5NL players are quite value heavy to begin with. Would calling a flop bet oop with a JJ/TT kinda hand on a
K high board, with the intention of folding to the last remaining ½ pot bet in hero's stack, really prove to be a winning play here? Serious question. Villain is hoping not only that such a hand is going to win a showdown often enough but also that it gets to showdown often enough in the first place - that hero will completely shut down in position over the next two streets. It's insanely exploitable (obv) against semi decent players or people who construct hand ranges but perhaps the players at this limit are poor enough for such a line to be profitable long term?
Without knowing villains holdings you can't state that he played it badly.
It's true villain may not have played his hand poorly, but that depends primarily on you imo. It's such a villain dependent line (i.e. absolutely non standard) and you don't have a whole lot of hands on each other. It's a bit hard to me to get a bead on whether or not you feel his play was bad. I think you mentioned somewhere else something about exploiting villain for his weak play with this hand? Or I misread something maybe.