Maybe I missed something in your explanation C9, so to clarify then............
it's okay to call but not raise?
It took me a while to find this , but I finally did. Phil Gordon's Little green Book.
"Say I'm playing heads up at the end of a tournament with the greatest player in the world. We both have 25 BB. If I move all in on every single hand, even if my opponent knows what I'm doing, they can't beat me more than 65% of the time. Do they call me when they pick up A7? If they do, and they are against the worst possible hand of 72, they will be at a 75% - 25% favorite. If they are up against a hand like 83, they will be a 63% - 35% favorite. Against a small pocket pair they will be a 45% - 55% underdog. Against A8or better they will be a 75% - 25% to lose.
The point is: They would probably have to call with A7, knowing that I am willing to move in on every hand, but they will never be more than about 60% against any two random cards."
So yes you can play with any two cards.........that part doesn't matter much.
However with information, why would you call? Why would you not just raise? He either plays it or he does not. Why not make him decide this pre-flop?
If the intent is to get him to fold, then the hand is more likely to fold if it's an all or nothing situation at preflop (which in my mind, it already is). If he calls and wins with all in, he will still be forced to play the next orbit as the SS with just 16K or 4 BB. If you call at 2000 and he wins by a check down, he still has 12K or 3 BB. I can't imagine why you would play the hand with a weak stance when the difference is only 1 BB. And I think you would not have much fold
equity past the flop because you only called preflop. Mostly because he will already feel pot committed and you only called at pre-flop.
Again, if you are not willing to raise, don't bet it.