B
BlueNowhere
Legend
Silver Level
So why should I raise pre in the 1st hand but not the 2nd hand? I have the same hand in both, and plenty of BB's in both (75 in the 1st, 30 in the 2nd.)
I don't regret anything with the 2nd hand, guy had been limping and raising a lot, plus the only 4 hands your dominated with facing AQ in a pre-flop all in is queens, kings, aces, and AK. You have a flip with all pocket pairs below queens, and your a big favorite against all the weak aces. I got it in good (only a 24% chance I lost the hand) but the guy hit runner runner.
1st hand your right, should have raised pre.
I'm not saying not to raise, I'm just saying don't jam. Also justifying it with the statement "I got it in good" is pointless. I'm sure you've seen the statement don't be results orientated a million times so saying I was favourite is irrelevant as to the optimal play, which as poker players is all we care about. I can post a ton of hands from today alone where I shoved and was in awful shape but that doesn't make my play not optimal, equally you getting it in good doesn't make your play optimal.