Why is all-in calling range more narrow for the same equity compared to running ranges against each other?

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itom112

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Hey!

Could someone clarify why can we call with less hands for the same equity? I linked two pictures, where we are both running against the same range but on the second one, our range contains less hands for the same 50%. Why?

Thank you!

Eqity1Equity2
 
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fundiver199

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If your opponent has a certain range, and you call with the same range, you will have 50% equity on average. However the worst hands in your range will have less than 50% equity, and this is why, you can only call with a tigther range than his, if you need 50% equity. Its also known as the gap concept.
 
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