C
crackers8199
Rising Star
Bronze Level
played in a home game tonight, here's the situation...
blinds were 50/100 (no antes) - small blind had exactly 50 chips left, so he was all in for his 50 as the small blind. i was big blind, so i attempted to split the pot and match his 50, then put my other 50 from my big blind into a side pot...
at which point small blind and two other players at the table started an argument with me, that he could also win my big blind because it's a forced bet. i know that if a player is all in for the big blind he can win the entire blinds (obviously), but i was always under the assumption that any player can only win the amount they have in the pot times the number of players...in other words, if everyone else folded there's no way he could win my entire $100 big blind because he only had $50 in the pot to begin with.
who's right in this case? i haven't been able to find a definitive rule online for this particular situation...
blinds were 50/100 (no antes) - small blind had exactly 50 chips left, so he was all in for his 50 as the small blind. i was big blind, so i attempted to split the pot and match his 50, then put my other 50 from my big blind into a side pot...
at which point small blind and two other players at the table started an argument with me, that he could also win my big blind because it's a forced bet. i know that if a player is all in for the big blind he can win the entire blinds (obviously), but i was always under the assumption that any player can only win the amount they have in the pot times the number of players...in other words, if everyone else folded there's no way he could win my entire $100 big blind because he only had $50 in the pot to begin with.
who's right in this case? i haven't been able to find a definitive rule online for this particular situation...