B
Beasty2k
Rock Star
Silver Level
Twice yday, at 10NL and 25NL, I had two different villain's call my flop AI, him holding a nut flush draw including an overcard A. First was in a 3-bet pot and I was in position, I 3-bet jammed the flop with TPGK (I had my reasons for stacking here). Villain had Axs, called and hit is flush.
Second I had set of J's in SB on JKx board with 2 spades, villain in BB. He 3-bet pre, I called. I have been experimenting with overbets so I over-jammed this flop and got called with Axs again, and he hit.
What is the general conception here, am I doing the right thing if I put villain on a nut flush or straight draw? I hold no blockers. Do we call the flop raise and jam any non-spade turn instead?
I guess it's close, but personally in villain's shoes I would probably fold to a jam vs proper aggression, but happy to jam myself with 4 to nut flush considering fold equity.
Thanks!
Second I had set of J's in SB on JKx board with 2 spades, villain in BB. He 3-bet pre, I called. I have been experimenting with overbets so I over-jammed this flop and got called with Axs again, and he hit.
What is the general conception here, am I doing the right thing if I put villain on a nut flush or straight draw? I hold no blockers. Do we call the flop raise and jam any non-spade turn instead?
I guess it's close, but personally in villain's shoes I would probably fold to a jam vs proper aggression, but happy to jam myself with 4 to nut flush considering fold equity.
Thanks!