T
toybits
Enthusiast
Silver Level
$50 NL HE 6-max: $ : $NL 50 shorthanded, TPTK problems
can you tell me if i did anything wrong or if my analysis is incorrect?
1) NL$50 shorthanded; villain relatively tight - 24 vpip, 16 pfr, 25 call pfr, 6 AF; i don't think he'll go past the flop with air; stacks are deep
PREFLOP: I have AK in co and raise to 1.50, villain on btn calls, blinds fold
FLOP: A9T, pot $3.75
I check as I've been cbetting a lot and wanted to change gears. Villain bets 2.5; I call. One option here was a check raise but I went with "slowplaying" my TPTK
TURN A9T4, pot $8.75
I check again and villain bets 6.50. Now I'm in a little bit of trouble I think. The only hands I beat are AQ and AJ, and he might be tight enough to not bet here even with that. Nonetheless, can I fold to this bet? In the game I call
RIVER A9T4s, pot $21.75
I check again (this time hoping he checks behind) and villain bets 12.50. What would you do?
2)NL30, no reads on villain as he just sat down; villain has $30 and I have $20
PREFLOP: I raise 0.90 on co with AKo, villain 3bets to $3 on btn, blinds fold. Pot is giving me 2:1, so I call thinking that if I hit an Ace or King I figure to have the best hand (is this correct?)
FLOP: 9sA4s, pot $6.45
I check hoping for a cbet. He cbets 3.75 and I raise to 8. He pushes allin 23. I only have $9 left and pot is $27 (doesn't include his extra $6). My initial impulse is to call, is this correct? If I had a bigger stack though I would most likely fold here.
3) NL30, villain is relatively loose with 49% vpip, 18% pfr, 52% call pfr, 36% wtsd; villain has $19, I have $35
PREFLOP: I raise 0.90 on btn with AJo, villain on sb calls, bb calls
FLOP: Jc24c, pot 2.70
Villain checks, bb checks. I bet 2. Villain check raises to 4. I call as I think he can be doing this with a wide range - KJ/QJ, TT-55, flush draw - are the hands I could beat
TURN: Jc24cQ, pot 10.70
Villain lead bets $3, only has $11 behind. I'm not sure if he still can do this (check-raise then lead bet making him pot committed) with KJ or lower pairs. A flush draw might as a blocking bet, but so would sets or QJ as a milking bet. Also, a flush draw might also push in this case. What would you do here? In the game I call.
RIVER: Jc24cQA, pot 16.70
Villain lead bets 4.50, leaving 6.5 behind. I beat QJ now, but I don't think a flush draw or KJ would take this line. What would you do here?
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Comments and criticisms (even harsh!) are very much welcome
can you tell me if i did anything wrong or if my analysis is incorrect?
1) NL$50 shorthanded; villain relatively tight - 24 vpip, 16 pfr, 25 call pfr, 6 AF; i don't think he'll go past the flop with air; stacks are deep
PREFLOP: I have AK in co and raise to 1.50, villain on btn calls, blinds fold
FLOP: A9T, pot $3.75
I check as I've been cbetting a lot and wanted to change gears. Villain bets 2.5; I call. One option here was a check raise but I went with "slowplaying" my TPTK
TURN A9T4, pot $8.75
I check again and villain bets 6.50. Now I'm in a little bit of trouble I think. The only hands I beat are AQ and AJ, and he might be tight enough to not bet here even with that. Nonetheless, can I fold to this bet? In the game I call
RIVER A9T4s, pot $21.75
I check again (this time hoping he checks behind) and villain bets 12.50. What would you do?
2)NL30, no reads on villain as he just sat down; villain has $30 and I have $20
PREFLOP: I raise 0.90 on co with AKo, villain 3bets to $3 on btn, blinds fold. Pot is giving me 2:1, so I call thinking that if I hit an Ace or King I figure to have the best hand (is this correct?)
FLOP: 9sA4s, pot $6.45
I check hoping for a cbet. He cbets 3.75 and I raise to 8. He pushes allin 23. I only have $9 left and pot is $27 (doesn't include his extra $6). My initial impulse is to call, is this correct? If I had a bigger stack though I would most likely fold here.
3) NL30, villain is relatively loose with 49% vpip, 18% pfr, 52% call pfr, 36% wtsd; villain has $19, I have $35
PREFLOP: I raise 0.90 on btn with AJo, villain on sb calls, bb calls
FLOP: Jc24c, pot 2.70
Villain checks, bb checks. I bet 2. Villain check raises to 4. I call as I think he can be doing this with a wide range - KJ/QJ, TT-55, flush draw - are the hands I could beat
TURN: Jc24cQ, pot 10.70
Villain lead bets $3, only has $11 behind. I'm not sure if he still can do this (check-raise then lead bet making him pot committed) with KJ or lower pairs. A flush draw might as a blocking bet, but so would sets or QJ as a milking bet. Also, a flush draw might also push in this case. What would you do here? In the game I call.
RIVER: Jc24cQA, pot 16.70
Villain lead bets 4.50, leaving 6.5 behind. I beat QJ now, but I don't think a flush draw or KJ would take this line. What would you do here?
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Comments and criticisms (even harsh!) are very much welcome