R
rics32
Rising Star
Bronze Level
I am fairly ashamed to ask this because I know its a very simple concept that for some reason I cant wrap my head around. I think I understand breakeven percentages so when I hold a king high flush draw with 18% equity on the turn against my opponents value range, meaning i hit my flush 18% of the time and then I beat his value range, which is sets and better. Lets say I am certain he holds a set but I still go all in (just for the sake of the explanation), and my opponent calls with a set. This bet was - EV, right? because i put money into the pot when i knew he had a better hand. this is logical. but then what if i don't go all in, but go 1cent short of all in, when i know he has a set. and then he reraises the 1cent that he has left. then calling that 1cent would be a + EV call right? because I am only calling 1cent to have a chance to win the whole pot for only 1cent. which are good odds for the price, right? So that logic would render the whole hand+ev then? because the whole hand lead me to me buying the right to win the pot for only 1 cent, when i have 18% equity? But how can it be both ways? when essentially it is just the same thing happening, us putting all of our money into the pot when he has the winning hand. I know i don't get something i just don't know what
Thanks for any replies
Thanks for any replies