re: Poker & Should 3bets Actually Be Called 4bets??
Originally Posted by SharkFinn
Ok very important topic coming up
I was thinking about the origin of the word '3bet' and I think there's a breakdown in the logic of the origin story. Supposedly it's called a 3bet because the blinds are the first bet, and an open raise is the second bet, and a raise over the open raise is the third bet, hence '3bet'. And only raises are counted as bets here, not calls.
Ok fine, but... the blinds are different sizes, so aren't they two bets, not one? I know in practice the blinds are posted at the same time but strictly I think the running order is small blind posted (first bet), big blind posted (second bet), open raise (third bet) etc.
What do you think - did whoever it was that first coined the phrase get their logic wrong??
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Haha. I thought the same reasoning when learning the terminology too. The element that helps me remember it is a "3-bet" (and not a "4-bet") is that technically the blinds and antes go in the center (before the cards are dealt) at the same time, so it is a single step/a single bet. 
Originally Posted by Collin Moshman
This is an interesting idea -- I definitely see the logic here
I think though that you could make the argument that the small blind doesn't count because it's not a legal bet size on any betting round (since the minimum bet is the big blind). Although thinking more about this, a blind is a forced bet by definition ... so I have to agree with what you're saying!
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Good thinking with the bet size not reaching the minimum. So I guess we just don't count it towards the count of "3" bets (or 4).
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