thatguy6793
Legend
Yes and no. So when you're playing a hand and thinking of ranges you usually only worry about the players that are still in the hand so you can start to pinpoint what hands they're likely playing given their previous action. But also you should have a general range for all the players at the table so you can do the above no matter who at the is the bettor. So while you will have a range for everyone, you'll only use that range for the bettor if that makes sense.
Collin Moshman
Poker Expert
Not a stupid question at all!
Typically you would just be trying to put active opponents on a range. There can also be plenty of small pots you're involved in that don't use this framework at all.
For example, suppose I raise pre-flop with 99 on the button and the big blind calls; then I bet a 2 5 8 flop when checked to. Up until that point in the hand, I'm only giving some subconscious thought to ranges. It would only be if my opponent calls or raises the flop bet that I would start trying to explicitly put him on a range.
Typically you would just be trying to put active opponents on a range. There can also be plenty of small pots you're involved in that don't use this framework at all.
For example, suppose I raise pre-flop with 99 on the button and the big blind calls; then I bet a 2 5 8 flop when checked to. Up until that point in the hand, I'm only giving some subconscious thought to ranges. It would only be if my opponent calls or raises the flop bet that I would start trying to explicitly put him on a range.
