N
noobydooby
Enthusiast
Silver Level
So I'm watching a WPT event, Final Table. I see the following action, and I'm very confused
SB opens 3bb with AhKc
BB calls with QcJh
SB bets 4/5 of the pot in the dark?!
Flop comes Ac9c2s
BB calls?
So pre-flop seems totally standard. Even the 3bb size, from OOP, makes sense to me. The call from the BB makes sense as well. All seems standard.
But then the bet in the dark seems very odd. Is there ever any benefit to this? I guess getting your opponent confused enough to call with a very marginal hand.
I understand the basic theory behind floating the flop is to prevent your opponent from making easy c-bets against you. I just don't understand the justification in this situation...
Like he needs 44% equity to call with the 2.2 : 1 odds he's getting on a call, but he's only getting to a flush or straight approximately 7% of the time. And then when he does, are there even implied odds when the board would look so connected?
Help me out here. Is this a bad call, or am I missing some next level thinking here?
SB opens 3bb with AhKc
BB calls with QcJh
SB bets 4/5 of the pot in the dark?!
Flop comes Ac9c2s
BB calls?
So pre-flop seems totally standard. Even the 3bb size, from OOP, makes sense to me. The call from the BB makes sense as well. All seems standard.
But then the bet in the dark seems very odd. Is there ever any benefit to this? I guess getting your opponent confused enough to call with a very marginal hand.
I understand the basic theory behind floating the flop is to prevent your opponent from making easy c-bets against you. I just don't understand the justification in this situation...
Like he needs 44% equity to call with the 2.2 : 1 odds he's getting on a call, but he's only getting to a flush or straight approximately 7% of the time. And then when he does, are there even implied odds when the board would look so connected?
Help me out here. Is this a bad call, or am I missing some next level thinking here?