D
DarkAndEarly
Guest
- Joined
- Oct 20, 2007
- Total posts
- 2
When I have a small pocket pair (9's or lower) I'll always try to limp in. How many times the big blind should I be willing to go pre flop?
As a general rule...
If you are describing how you play, and you have to use the word "always" you are doing something wrong.
There are no always in poker...just like "there is no crying in baseball."
Your above thread should read something to the effect of:
On a short handed table where 4+ people are seeing every flop for a single bet; if the person to my right raises and I have a pp smaller then 99 should I call, raise or fold?
As a general rule, implied odds allow you to call up to 10% of the smaller of the stacks. For example, you have 2,000 and your opponent has 1,200 you could call a bet of 120; if you have 3,000 and your opponent has 15,000 you can call a bet of 300.
No real absolutes, as has been noted, but that's a starting guideline.
Aliengenius,
I agree with this only if you can guarantee:
1. There will not be any additional betting
2. The player is likely to make this move (all-in) with A/X as he is to do it with a PP
If there is betting after the flop (i.e. the player is not all-in) then calling off 10% of your chips pre-flop seems like a bad decision in my opinion. Only when the player is all in would I follow this advice.
I believe you got this idea from Harrington on Hold 'em: Expert Strategy for No-limit Tournaments. If that is the case I would suggest going back to re-read that chaper, I think you misunderstood what he meant.
It was my understanding that the 'call the 10% rule' was that if their total stack was 10% of your total. i.e. he goes in for 2,000 and you have 20,000--calling with just about any 2 is near justified (given the type of player of course).
Calling a raise that is 10% of your stack doesn't make any sense to me. What if he has you outstacked? Still OK to call that raise? It has been a LONG time since I read that chapter, so I could be off my rocker confused.
When I have a small pocket pair (9's or lower) I'll always try to limp in. How many times the big blind should I be willing to go pre flop?
I read two articles about this recently and I'm going to copy paste them here different thoughts from each instructer, I usually play the way Willis describes but Wallaces article shed some light on some deeper mathmatics involved. good reads.
What if I would have won all of the 3:1++'s and lose all of the 10:1's?
... Using the easy 10:1 rule...
...8:1 really isn't enough...
This is what I was speaking of 8:1 is "not enough", but 10:1 is? I know you were taking this from someone else, so it's not directed at you, just using your quote. If 8:1 is not enough then 7:1, 6:1, 5:1... would not either? Why miss those chances of taking money? I understand we're supposed to make the "correct" call everytime and we'll come out ahead, but all hands are different and could be a 10:1 loser and an 8:1 winner, why not play both? And yes, I am learning the mathematics of poker still, which is why I question this (and why I'm on CC to learn).
...How many times the big blind should I be willing to go pre flop?
The OP and I are speaking in regards to justifying PP's to the xBB bets, however, you (and others) are speaking of betting PP's with regards to ratio of villan's stack. So in essence I should focus more on how much I may get from villans stack (10:1) as apposed to how much I will lose from mine (xBB)?
However, my 1st Q to you was; if villan bets out $10 and has $50 stacked behind (5:1) we wouldn't call? But if he has $10 + $200 (20:1) we would? I understand your long term ideal plan:
for a net loss of $3,350
for a net gain of +16,000
But that would be if everything were to play exactly right. As we know in poker it will not always play exactly right...
So, shouldn't we try to take their $50 if we can, instead of losing $200 because it's right?
However, my 1st Q to you was; if villan bets out $10 and has $50 stacked behind (5:1) we wouldn't call? But if he has $10 + $200 (20:1) we would? I understand your long term ideal plan:
for a net loss of $3,350
for a net gain of +16,000
But that would be if everything were to play exactly right. As we know in poker it will not always play exactly right...
So, shouldn't we try to take their $50 if we can, instead of losing $200 because it's right?