G
GreatLeslie
Rock Star
Silver Level
Would I be correct in thinking that if a player checked a flop with a flush draw on it, that he would be holding a flush draw himself most likely, otherwise he would be betting with any pair to protect his hand? Am I right in thinking this or is this too simplified?
So if the flop is
Kd Qc 2d
He checks,
Most likely he is on the draw himself? Otherwise if he had Kx or Qx he would be betting to protect his hand against a flush card on the turn?
So if the flop is
Kd Qc 2d
He checks,
Most likely he is on the draw himself? Otherwise if he had Kx or Qx he would be betting to protect his hand against a flush card on the turn?