hott_estelle
Legend
Silver Level
I have to follow this up with another question, then.
Every variable of the initial story is the same, with one very important exception: He limps preflop and you (for whatever reason) don't raise AK.
Now, the flop comes ace-high, giving you top pair, top kicker. He fumbles with his cards, you can't help but notice that he flopped a flush draw but no pair. He pushes all-in. Am I correct in assuming that you fold at this point?
This answer only applies when I absolutely know that he has a flush draw.
So first hand of M.E., guy limps in, I for some *godforsaken* reason limp in also and we're HU going to the flop. Our chipstacks are 10K, and blinds are 25/50. So I only have 50 invested into a pot of 100. Blind levels move up in what 100 mins or 120 mins, one or the other I believe, don't know it off the top of my head.
So, he has a flush draw off the flop, with no other draws and no pair. He has about 36% to hit his flush, with two cards to go.
With only 50 invested into the pot, with it being early on in tourney, with very comfortable blind structure for me, I make this fold. I don't want to gamble off all my chips--and yes I believe 65/35 is still a gamble--when my chipstack is what it is, blinds what they are, and the fact that I only have 50 invested into this pot, so if I know that he has a flush draw, I make this fold.
This answer is only for situations like the one you proposed FP, since people can't seem to understand that different plays should be made for different situations--even with the exact same hands. Obv, there will be situations where I make the call with AK, top pair, top kick against a flush draw--or essentially there will be situations where I make the call with 65/35 odds. But for this given situation, I would fold.