Winning Hand Question

R

RoadRash

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Man, I just posted this, and something went wrong. I'll try this again...

I have a question about who would win in a couple of scenarios. I haven't had much luck when trying to look this up online. The hands I am choosing here are somewhat arbitrary, just trying to get the point across.

Scenario 1:

Playing Texas Hold'em

Cards on the Board: A873T (the A873 are suited up - clubs)

Player 1: 5J (With the 5 being clubs, player has a flush)
Player 2: 4K (With the 4 being clubs, player has a flush)

Would player 1 win this hand? I think he would not, and that both players would split the pot since the high card of the flush is the community ace. But this recently came up at a poker game I played at some friends house and it's still being argued about.


Scenario 2:

Playing 7 card stud with a high-low split

Player 1: A234T
Player 2: 45679

If both of these players are going for the low hand, I have to assume Player 2 would take the pot here. This is another scenario I ran into playing with a different group of friends. I tried to explain to them that it's the lowest card that wins here. My explanation was that if we were playing for the high hand (excluding the ace), that player 1 would have won this hand, meaning that at a game of low ball he loses. The guy was arguing that he had more low cards, so he wins. Anyway, I'm about 99% sure I am correct on this one.

So, what do you all think? And is there a resource on the net I can get some of this information from. Mainly because I am supposed to play another group this weekend, and I ran both of these scenarios by the guy who is hosting the game, with him thinking the opposite of myself as to who would of won the pot. I need to find out what is correct one way or the other, and if it is me, show him some solid proof that I am correct.

Thanks for everyones help in advance...
 
Last edited:
Dorkus Malorkus

Dorkus Malorkus

HELLO INTERNET
RoadRash said:
Scenario 1:

Playing Texas Hold'em

Cards on the Board: A874T (the A874 are suited up - clubs)

Player 1: 5J (With the 5 being clubs, player has a flush)
Player 2: 4K (With the 4 being clubs, player has a flush)

Would player 1 win this hand? I think he would not, and that both players would split the pot since the high card of the flush is the community ace. But this recently came up at a poker game I played at some friends house and it's still being argued about.
Umm, I think you made a mistake here seeing as there appear to be two 4 of clubs out there (one on the board, one in player 2's hand). Anyway, with flushes the player with the first card in the flush higher than the other player wins. So take this for example...

Board: AcQc9c3d7h

Player 1: 5c3c
Player 2: Kc2c

Player 1 has a AQ953 flush, player 2 has a AKQ92 flush. Both players have the Ac, so take the next card, player 2 wins as his Kc is higher than player 1's Qc.

With something like this...

Board: AsKs9s8s7s

Player 1: 3s2s
Player 2: 6s4s

The pot is split, as both players have an AK987 flush, the fact that player 2's 6s is higher than player 1's 3s doesn't matter, as you take the best 5 cards only to make a hand, of course.

RoadRash said:
Scenario 2:

Playing 7 card stud with a high-low split

Player 1: A234T
Player 2: 45679

If both of these players are going for the low hand, I have to assume Player 2 would take the pot here. This is another scenario I ran into playing with a different group of friends. I tried to explain to them that it's the lowest card that wins here. My explanation was that if we were playing for the high hand (excluding the ace), that player 1 would have won this hand, meaning that at a game of low ball he loses. The guy was arguing that he had more low cards, so he wins. Anyway, I'm about 99% sure I am correct on this one.
Usually to qualify for the low pot a hand must be 8-high or lower, so here neither qualifies for the low. But assuming you have 2 hands that do qualify, you take the highest card first and work down, and the player with the lowest first card takews the low (in your example it would be player 2 as his 9 is lower than player 1's T, the fact that player 1 has "more low cards" is irrelevant).
 
Four Dogs

Four Dogs

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RoadRash said:
Scenario 1:


Cards on the Board: A874T (the A874 are suited up - clubs)

Player 1: 5J (With the 5 being clubs, player has a flush)
Player 2: 4K (With the 4 being clubs, player has a flush)
Player 2 because he has a suited pair which is really rare.
 
Dorkus Malorkus

Dorkus Malorkus

HELLO INTERNET
Four Dogs said:
Player 2 because he has a suited pair which is really rare.
Some guy sucked out on my quad aces with a suited pair yesterday. I wasn't a happy camper. :(
 
R

RoadRash

Guest
:thefinger Okay %$#$^&%, I fixed the original post....lol...If I ever do get a pair suited up, I'll post it here first though!

Dorkus, thanks for the info. I was trying to just use arbitrary info to get the point across about the question. And, it was the second time I posted it since things went wrong after I hit submit the first time I typed it all up and lost the post.
Anyway, appreciate it. Glad I know now.
 
S

StackThemUp

Guest
Hi,
Just remember its the BEST 5 cards that count so the higher club in the hole card counts towards the flush. A lot of people make this mistake when it comes to the board showing a high flush..
 
misstrixi

misstrixi

Guest
on the holdem one they would split
on the 7 card stud two would win, because ace is the high card without a straight
 
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