Folding top set

Hard2Handle

Hard2Handle

Enthusiast
Silver Level
Joined
Aug 11, 2007
Total posts
99
Chips
0
TAKE THAT BACK.
FLOP is 954
One opp has 67.
One opp has 55.
One opp has 44.
Add all the other over PP.
 
ChuckTs

ChuckTs

Legend
Silver Level
Joined
Feb 2, 2005
Total posts
13,642
Chips
0
Well close enough :)

However right you get it, it's just to degrees of how dead you're drawing.

The example (from here) says this:

Your ten opponents hold AA through JJ, 66, 33, 78s, 45s and 57s. Flop is 9c 6s 3d (suits don't matter, but it's rainbow).

In that case you are technically ahead atm, but you're drawing to one out twice since any other card will kill you. A ten or a deuce will give you additional outs for a FH (T or 2 would fill the FH; others would only give quads to someone else). The case 9 will of course win it for you assuming noone makes a backdoor straight flush :)
 
Last edited:
ChuckTs

ChuckTs

Legend
Silver Level
Joined
Feb 2, 2005
Total posts
13,642
Chips
0
Mine too.

see link for a better explanation :eek:

I suck.
 
Hard2Handle

Hard2Handle

Enthusiast
Silver Level
Joined
Aug 11, 2007
Total posts
99
Chips
0
Well in there were 10 players then this would be the worse scenerio.
Flop 9-5-4
1-5 hold tens through aces.
6 holds 55
7 holds 44
8 holds 67
9 holds A3
You being the 10th holding 99.

Your only safe cards would be the case 9 and a 5 or 4 if it didn't hit twice.
 
Hard2Handle

Hard2Handle

Enthusiast
Silver Level
Joined
Aug 11, 2007
Total posts
99
Chips
0
FORGET ABOUT MY LAST RESPONSE!!! I"M DONE. After re-reading your answer I can cleary see it now. G1. Now I'm really done.
 
naruto_miu

naruto_miu

Legend
Silver Level
Joined
Jul 31, 2007
Total posts
12,123
Awards
5
Chips
1
damn, that's a n1 i really didn't even think about it like that, lol... Ty once again, u should do these more often, if it's possible
 
vanquish

vanquish

Legend
Silver Level
Joined
Apr 26, 2007
Total posts
12,000
Chips
0
Well close enough :)

However right you get it, it's just to degrees of how dead you're drawing.

The example (from here) says this:

Your ten opponents hold AA through JJ, 66, 33, 78s, 45s and 57s. Flop is 9c 6s 3d (suits don't matter, but it's rainbow).

In that case you are technically ahead atm, but you're drawing to one out twice since any other card will kill you. A ten or a deuce will give you additional outs for a FH (T or 2 would fill the FH; others would only give quads to someone else). The case 9 will of course win it for you assuming noone makes a backdoor straight flush :)

Bleh I brought this up a while ago actually (top set is actually drawing to quads - only way of winning). https://www.cardschat.com/forum/cash-game-hand-analysis-50/nuts-but-still-behind-92787/
 
B

Bentheman87

Visionary
Silver Level
Joined
Sep 6, 2007
Total posts
794
Chips
0
Yeah, dont fold a set. Sure there's a possible straight, but its very unlucky. As Dan Harrington says, if your set gets outflopped youre supposed to lose a lot of money. And several times I have flopped a straight on the flop and got all in against a player who flopped a set, and he wins with a full house when the board pairs on the turn or river.
 
jaketrevvor

jaketrevvor

Legend
Silver Level
Joined
Oct 25, 2007
Total posts
1,402
Chips
0
If everyone could see my cards I'd push I think...
 
K_Kahne_Fan

K_Kahne_Fan

Legend
Silver Level
Joined
Oct 2, 2007
Total posts
1,197
Chips
0
Easy, you fold when you're playing on (name your site), because it's rigged! They're all rigged!! It's a conspiracy to take my money. They've built these sites with $?m(?) just to wait for me to have a set of 9's so they could bust it and take my $5 buy-in :D :p
 
D

dde21

Rock Star
Silver Level
Joined
Dec 27, 2006
Total posts
115
Chips
0
still would never fold and nobody would
 
ChuckTs

ChuckTs

Legend
Silver Level
Joined
Feb 2, 2005
Total posts
13,642
Chips
0
Of course not, because it's a hypothetical question. You really think this situation is ever going to come up in real life?
 
Cheetah

Cheetah

Visionary
Silver Level
Joined
Oct 15, 2007
Total posts
825
Chips
0
A poker riddle for you - please don't google or it'll ruin the surprise.

Is there ever any situation where you would fold 99 for top set on an unpaired rainbow flop? If so, what would it be, and what would be your opponent(s) hand(s)?

I am answering the more restricted version of this question using your example, Chuck.

The answer is CALL!

Let me first make a few qualifications:
  1. We ignore tournament bubble effects where you might fold a +EV hand to get in the money
  2. Implied odds usually matter. Since there are no chip stacks, I have assumed the worst case scenario. Say the game is 1/2c, We are in the big blind, and everyone pushes all-in for $1 million. Do we call $1 million or not? Pot odds = implied odds = 9:1 (or 10% win rate)
I became very suspicious reading this example as something one should fold. Let's realize that we are not looking to be "favorite" to win. We are looking for +EV! If we win, we win 9 units. If we lose, we lose only 1 unit. So if we are better than 9:1 dog, we must call. Another way to say this is we must win more than 10% of the time to make it a profitable call.

I devised a visual representation of the calculation of our odds because if I use combinatorics, most people would fall asleep and probably not believe me anyway:) .

Before explaining the the picture, let me appeal to your intuition. We have 99, top set, one of our opponents has AA. Considering just that one opponent, do we have +EV with respect to that one opponent? I am sure most of you will say "yes". And indeed, we already have a set, they must hit their set. Even when they hit, we still have one out left to outdraw them.

The argument that there are so many of them that we must be behind is not valid because if we are ahead of each one of them, then we are ahead of them even collectively in terms of +EV. We could even be behind some of them (in terms of EV), and still be ahead overall.

I am not answering the bigger question whether there is ANY combination of hands that results in -EV for us. I suspect there isn't any.

But what follows is a proof that the example provided by Chuck is a clear call.

Basically, we must count how many times we win and lose. Now look at the picture. I have summarized the situation (flop, hero, other 9 players).
There are 29 cards left in the deck because we have 10 players (20 cards) and the flop(3 cards). Therefore, we have 29 possible turn cards. Clearly, after the turn, we have 28 possible river cards. That makes a total of 29 x 28 possible turn/river combinations = 812

In order for us to have a +EV, we need at least 10% win rate, which means we need to win at least 82 of these 812 combinations.

On the attached picture, the turn card is represented in blue. To the left of the turn card is how many of those cards we have left in the deck.

The columns represent the river card. The numbers inside this matrix represent how many river cards of that type are left in the deck.

The green areas represent our winning combinations. When we calculate our winning combinations, we arrive at 96 which is more than 82.

Therefore, we MUST call!

If you have any questions, let me know.

P.S. The original example says that the non-paired players have suited cards. This is irrelevant to us sine we can only beat their str8s with FHs.
 

Attachments

  • top-set.jpg
    top-set.jpg
    75.8 KB · Views: 31
Emperor IX

Emperor IX

Cardschat Elite
Silver Level
Joined
May 28, 2007
Total posts
2,974
Chips
0
Well, I've got another answer (may already have been said)

Folding top set is appropriate when my opponent has the 99 and I have 23o? I would love for him to fold it.
 
KingNothing4

KingNothing4

Rock Star
Silver Level
Joined
Sep 12, 2007
Total posts
382
Chips
0
now thats some crazy stuff right there, person who figured that out musta had some time to think about crazy hands...but that is really crazy
 
KingNothing4

KingNothing4

Rock Star
Silver Level
Joined
Sep 12, 2007
Total posts
382
Chips
0
wow cheetah! thats some analysis! so now i kno i can call this when it comes up in a game haha
 
zachvac

zachvac

Legend
Silver Level
Joined
Sep 14, 2007
Total posts
7,832
Chips
0
Sorry, but the answer to the original question is plain wrong. I ran a pokerstove analysis on it and you are 11% to win in a 10-way pot. Enough to call even without the money in the pot PF. You are not the favorite, but even if the bet was infinite with respect to money in the pot, you make the call. A worse scenario comes when rather than AA, he has A9. Now you are under 5% to win, because rather than drawing to the 9, you're drawing to 22, TT, or AA, 11 outs then 1, 2, or 3 outs, which is worse than the draw to 9 outs, if you hit one already having the win, if not drawing to 4 outs.

My new challenge (not sure if it's possible):

Give me a 10-way hand that is the nuts postflop yet actually drawing dead. THAT would make for an interesting hand, although I'm not sure it's possible. I'm guessing if it is possible you don't have a great hand but everyone else has massive draws. I haven't been able to think of one, but it could be possible.
 
zachvac

zachvac

Legend
Silver Level
Joined
Sep 14, 2007
Total posts
7,832
Chips
0
I am answering the more restricted version of this question using your example, Chuck.

The answer is CALL!

Let me first make a few qualifications:
  1. We ignore tournament bubble effects where you might fold a +EV hand to get in the money
  2. Implied odds usually matter. Since there are no chip stacks, I have assumed the worst case scenario. Say the game is 1/2c, We are in the big blind, and everyone pushes all-in for $1 million. Do we call $1 million or not? Pot odds = implied odds = 9:1 (or 10% win rate)
I became very suspicious reading this example as something one should fold. Let's realize that we are not looking to be "favorite" to win. We are looking for +EV! If we win, we win 9 units. If we lose, we lose only 1 unit. So if we are better than 9:1 dog, we must call. Another way to say this is we must win more than 10% of the time to make it a profitable call.

I devised a visual representation of the calculation of our odds because if I use combinatorics, most people would fall asleep and probably not believe me anyway:) .

Before explaining the the picture, let me appeal to your intuition. We have 99, top set, one of our opponents has AA. Considering just that one opponent, do we have +EV with respect to that one opponent? I am sure most of you will say "yes". And indeed, we already have a set, they must hit their set. Even when they hit, we still have one out left to outdraw them.
I wrote my response before I saw this, and he basically said some of what I said, but I have a question about whether the end of this is right. If we are beating every opponent head on (including draws and such, not just at this moment), are we guaranteed to be +ev? In fact, this is definitely false, as we'll see in a second with my example (AA having A9 instead).

The argument that there are so many of them that we must be behind is not valid because if we are ahead of each one of them, then we are ahead of them even collectively in terms of +EV. We could even be behind some of them (in terms of EV), and still be ahead overall.
Mostly right, but it doesn't matter if we're ahead of each of them, it matters if overall we are 10% to win each hand or better. That's all that matters. Getting 2nd place every hand doesn't win any money, and if we can beat all but one in most situations (which I believe will be the case in my example), we still beat everyone the majority of the time, but the small majority of the time they beat us, they beat everyone.

I am not answering the bigger question whether there is ANY combination of hands that results in -EV for us. I suspect there isn't any.
As I mentioned, there is.

But what follows is a proof that the example provided by Chuck is a clear call.

Basically, we must count how many times we win and lose. Now look at the picture. I have summarized the situation (flop, hero, other 9 players).
There are 29 cards left in the deck because we have 10 players (20 cards) and the flop(3 cards). Therefore, we have 29 possible turn cards. Clearly, after the turn, we have 28 possible river cards. That makes a total of 29 x 28 possible turn/river combinations = 812

In order for us to have a +EV, we need at least 10% win rate, which means we need to win at least 82 of these 812 combinations.

On the attached picture, the turn card is represented in blue. To the left of the turn card is how many of those cards we have left in the deck.

The columns represent the river card. The numbers inside this matrix represent how many river cards of that type are left in the deck.

The green areas represent our winning combinations. When we calculate our winning combinations, we arrive at 96 which is more than 82.

Therefore, we MUST call!

If you have any questions, let me know.

P.S. The original example says that the non-paired players have suited cards. This is irrelevant to us sine we can only beat their str8s with FHs.

Nice analysis, and correct about the suited not mattering. Trips cannot win the hand, any hand we have that will win the hand will also beat a flush, thus we can ignore the flush (which further emphasizes the fact that comparing against single opponents, where the flush WILL impact our head-to-head percentage, it does NOT impact our overall percentage thus we can ignore it).


So about that example, where AA has A9 instead. Let's look at each head to head.

A9 vs. 99, flop=963, he only wins with running aces, we win every other time, we have him dominated.

KK, QQ, and JJ vs. 99, He has 2 draws to 2 outs, we're the clear favorite

66, 33 vs. 99, he has 2 draws to 1 out, we're the clear favorite again

87 vs. 99, this is the best hand against ours, as he is drawing to 8 outs, has 2 shots to do it, plus if the suited cards match one of the board's suits he also has runner-runner flush draw. But we have re-draws of 6 outs if he hits the straight (another of whichever card completes the straight, or a 6 or 3). But although he has a good draw, and he may have odds to call in a hand against us if we don't bet big enough compared to the pot, he is still obviously the underdog here, as simply drawing to 8 outs even with 2 cards to come is not greater than 50% (1-(37/45)(36/44)) = 32.7%. Runner-runner draws (also some re-draws for us) are not enough to make up the difference and make them a favorite

45 vs. 99, pretty much identical to the above with different numbers to straight, same concepts though, and should be identical percentage.


75 vs. 99, again, pretty much the same percentages, this time it's not a straightforward open-ended draw, but there are still 2 cards to fill the straight, thus a very similar percentage. We are again the favorite.

But because we have such a strong hand, we end up in 2nd place a lot. So although we're ahead of every hand and the majority of the time we beat each individual hand, we end up in 2nd place a lot, thus counting for us beating 8 of our 9 opponents yet winning 0% of the pot. So we come away with 4.926% to win (according to pokerstove) and we would NOT call if we saw A9 flipped over rather than AA.
 
Cheetah

Cheetah

Visionary
Silver Level
Joined
Oct 15, 2007
Total posts
825
Chips
0
wow cheetah! thats some analysis! so now i kno i can call this when it comes up in a game haha

King, I am glad I cleared that up for you. No poker player is complete without knowing how to play in this situation.:)
 
Cheetah

Cheetah

Visionary
Silver Level
Joined
Oct 15, 2007
Total posts
825
Chips
0
zachvac, you are correct. If we substitute AA with A9, we are only 4.93% to win. I am including the visual calculation in that case.

BTW, who is that donkey that went all-in with A9? :laugh:

Here is an excercise for the truly twisted minds: How much worse can we make this top set situation? :evil:
 

Attachments

  • top-set-2.jpg
    top-set-2.jpg
    76.1 KB · Views: 17
dj11

dj11

Legend
Silver Level
Joined
Oct 9, 2006
Total posts
23,189
Awards
9
Chips
0
one more so obvious it is embarrassing.

flop is 999, and you hold anything below 9.

In the truest sense of the original question, this fits also, this is an unpaired flop.
 
Cheetah

Cheetah

Visionary
Silver Level
Joined
Oct 15, 2007
Total posts
825
Chips
0
one more so obvious it is embarrassing.

flop is 999, and you hold anything below 9.

In the truest sense of the original question, this fits also, this is an unpaired flop.

I don't think this one qualifies. 999 is a pair of nines with 9 kicker.:) Besides, the setup is such that you know you have the nuts on the flop even if you don't know their hole cards.
 
zachvac

zachvac

Legend
Silver Level
Joined
Sep 14, 2007
Total posts
7,832
Chips
0
one more so obvious it is embarrassing.

flop is 999, and you hold anything below 9.

In the truest sense of the original question, this fits also, this is an unpaired flop.

but you don't have top set in this situation. Set=2 in your hand, one on the board, right?

But this provides the foundation for the answer as to how it's possible to have the best hand (although it is not the nuts) and be drawing absolutely dead.

board = 333
your hand = 22
other hands: AK, QJ, T9, 87, 65, A2, A4

I think the hands AK - 65 are obvious why they're needed, a card above a 3 comes and someone has the higher boat. The A2 is needed just so that you can not hit runner runner quads and the A4 provides 2 purposes, taking away the last A (so the turn and river aren't 3-A, splitting the pot as everyone has quads A kicker) and taking the 4 so that running 4's doesn't split the pot. So at this point you have the best hand, 3s full of 2s. But the next card will put you behind no matter what, unless it's a 2, which keeps your best hand at 3s full of 2s (no poker hand called double trips :)) and the last card, since there are no 2s left will either give someone a higher boat or else put quads on the board splitting the pot between the people with A high kicker to the quads.
 
vanquish

vanquish

Legend
Silver Level
Joined
Apr 26, 2007
Total posts
12,000
Chips
0
You can still chop if turn is a 3 and river is an A.
 
Folding in Poker
Top