Poll: 30 outer against an overbet?

What do you do?

  • Fold

    Votes: 6 16.2%
  • Just call

    Votes: 9 24.3%
  • Raise him all-in

    Votes: 22 59.5%

  • Total voters
    37
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billyth3kid

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i would put him on the set if hes a solid player... solid players usually dont put half there stack on top pair..unless its top pair/flush draw, 3 handed i would go for it.. but with people left in the game i would find a better opportunity

ps.. doesnt look like 30 outs
 
liv3player

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Shocked

This is actually a good point, that I overlooked. Whether or not the 4H is actually an out. Thanks for pointing that out.
I'm shocked to see it took almost a full page for someone to point out that the 4H could not possibly be an out if he was holding a set.Everyone determines the way they play their own hands and I see no reason to argue over something that is so trivial.Clearly you have your own answers and have all along so why come in the forum to post the question when you never really wanted an answer unless it matched what you think should be the correct answer.
 
Sean Pilgrim

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My advice... never shove on a draw some jerkoff will find you in the parking lot
 
-Phil Ivey27

-Phil Ivey27

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This, coming from someone who thinks he is Phil Ivey? We all model our styles and personnas after successful pros.

You obviously flunked the elementary-school unit on the difference between facts and opinions. But that's ok, it's your teacher's fault, not yours.

Hahaha, counting outs is a matter of mathmatics, a matter of facts, not theory. To give you an example, because you clearly need one to comprehend something as simple as this, (this is not how I think, this is an example of a made up theory) my opinion of counting outs is I take how many cards can give me the winning hand, and I multiply this number by 60, and this gives me the percentage I have to win.

Noo! I can't just count my percentages however I want, it is not a matter of opinion or theory.
 
blankoblanco

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i present to you guys, my masterwork, inspired by this thread. it is called "gdrileyx hosts a party" and it is a play in 1 act.


GDRileyx Hosts a Party
Act 1, Scene i

Enter
Dude 1 and Guy 2. They are at a party hosted by GDRileyx

Dude 1: I missed the basketball game last night, what was the score?

Guy 2: Oh, the Lakers won 100 to 82

[GDRileyx somersaults off a nearby table landing between the two men, drenched in french onion dip]

GDRileyx: That's just your opinion!!! I measure points in units of 10. So actually the score was 10 to 8.2!!!!

Dude 1: wat

GDRileyx: Um, what's the difference, you can still tell who won! It's exactly the same. THE SCORE WAS 10 TO 8.2 YOU CLOSED-MINDED FOOLS

Exit Everybody at the party except GDRileyx
 
Stu_Ungar

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I'm shocked to see it took almost a full page for someone to point out that the 4H could not possibly be an out if he was holding a set.Everyone determines the way they play their own hands and I see no reason to argue over something that is so trivial.Clearly you have your own answers and have all along so why come in the forum to post the question when you never really wanted an answer unless it matched what you think should be the correct answer.

I think you are overlooking why these posts degenerate.

I will use the quote you referred to to illustrate this.

This is actually a good point, that I overlooked. Whether or not the 4H is actually an out. Thanks for pointing that out.

GDRileyx has a fundamental need to be correct all of the time. Its a reoccurring theme that crops up in all of GDRileyx's posts.

Accepting that the 4h should or could have to be removed brings the discussion into discounting. We are on the path to 12 outs here. This leads towards the possibility of an incorrect play.

Hence we get this follow up.

But you are right about the two hearts. I would have to subtract 4% chance of that happening from my equation, to be more accurate. On the other hand, poker odds are always approximations anyway, since the burned and mucked cards affect the percentages, but there is no way of knowing how to figure their impact. So that 4% is actually less than the average margain of error inherent in approximating poker odds, and becomes essentially irrelevent.

When its pointed out that burned cards and mucked cards do not effect probability, we get this

Stu, the mucked and burned cards DO effect the odds, but there is no way of including them in the equation.

If you have AA, and both the other aces were mucked, you have 0% chance of making a set. But you have no way of knowing they were mucked, so you can't account for that factor in determining your approximate odds.

Suppose one of the mucked aces was accidentally exposed. Would you still argue that you have the same 12% chance of hitting your set?

Which someone poined out is the equivalent of saying if you shuffle a deck of cards, the probability of the Jh being the top card is 1/52 so long as it isnt the bottom card because then it would be a probability of 0.
 
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DawgBones

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i present to you guys, my masterwork, inspired by this thread. it is called "gdrileyx hosts a party" and it is a play in 1 act.


GDRileyx Hosts a Party
Act 1, Scene i

Enter Dude 1 and Guy 2. They are at a party hosted by GDRileyx

Dude 1: I missed the basketball game last night, what was the score?

Guy 2: Oh, the Lakers won 100 to 82

[GDRileyx somersaults off a nearby table landing between the two men, drenched in french onion dip]

GDRileyx: That's just your opinion!!! I measure points in units of 10. So actually the score was 10 to 8.2!!!!

Dude 1: wat

GDRileyx: Um, what's the difference, you can still tell who won! It's exactly the same. THE SCORE WAS 10 TO 8.2 YOU CLOSED-MINDED FOOLS

Exit Everybody at the party except GDRileyx

ROFLMAO. Tony Award winner for sure:star: . Is he drenched in the dip or is he the dip?
 
-Phil Ivey27

-Phil Ivey27

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i present to you guys, my masterwork, inspired by this thread. it is called "gdrileyx hosts a party" and it is a play in 1 act.


GDRileyx Hosts a Party
Act 1, Scene i

Enter Dude 1 and Guy 2. They are at a party hosted by GDRileyx

Dude 1: I missed the basketball game last night, what was the score?

Guy 2: Oh, the Lakers won 100 to 82

[GDRileyx somersaults off a nearby table landing between the two men, drenched in french onion dip]

GDRileyx: That's just your opinion!!! I measure points in units of 10. So actually the score was 10 to 8.2!!!!

Dude 1: wat

GDRileyx: Um, what's the difference, you can still tell who won! It's exactly the same. THE SCORE WAS 10 TO 8.2 YOU CLOSED-MINDED FOOLS

Exit Everybody at the party except GDRileyx


LMAO!!

Absouletly correct.
 
jdeliverer

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Can we end thread please? Nobody is being productive and I think personal attacks don't help anyone.
 
P

ph_il

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I'd say this is a better analogy. You're playing Russian Roulette with three bullets in a six shot revolver. You have to pull the trigger once or twice. You seem to be saying you might as well pull it twice, because the odds are the same as blowing your brains out either way.
No, the odds are not the same.

First pull, you have 3 bullets/6 chambers = 1/2 or 50% chance of shooting yourself.

Second pull (if you're still alive) you still have 3 bullets but only 5 chambers. You technically still have 6 chambers but since it rotates, you eliminate on empty chamber so, no you have 3 bullets/5 chambers left to rotate = 60% of shooting yourself.

So, your odds of shooting yourself are increased the more empty chambers you pass.
 
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Vizio

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ball back in your court

On this play I think he has either A's, Q's, or J's. If he has A's he wants to push you off the pot b4 you can run him into a bad beat. If he has Q's or J's this is a way of feeling you out to see if you just hit you K. If you push the pressure is back on him and as you know pressure has been known to bust pipes. I say push all in and be your own hero or your own worst enemy.

Lets gamble
 
P

ph_il

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This is where Stu is "flat wrong". He's figuring the odds as being one draw to make my hand, instead of two draws. He's saying it would be 15 outs times two, if it was an all-in bet. He's saying I only get one draw for that bet, and denying that I can multiply by two, the way he counts outs. But I can make it two draws for the one bet by pushing all-in. Therfore, I am entitled to use the times two multiplyer, which I count as 30 outs, and he counts as 15 outs times two.
This is just dumb. Just admit you have no idea what you are talking about.

Whether you shove all in to see a turn and river or you call a flop bet to see a turn and then see river, you still have 15 outs only and 2 draws (2 cards to come). You can not increase your total number of outs just because you have more than one draw. Poker does not work that way, sir. The odds of you hitting your hand may increase, but not the number of outs. There are situations where the number of outs may increase-example: flopping a set, followed by a non-paired card on the turn increase your flop to turn, turn to river outs. However, this does not apply to your OP.

If what you are saying is true, then in an AA vs KK all in situation preflop, then KK has 2 outs left and 5 cards to come. There for 2 outs x 5 draws = 10 outs (kings) he can hit. But how is that possible? It's not because there are only 4 kings in a deck.

Another example is: You have $15 and you save it 3 days (no spending anything) how much do you have on the 3rd day? Well $15 x 3 = $45, but that's not possible is it? Money does not magically double up each day other wise I'd be rich by now. If you have $15 on day 1 and keep it until day 3, you still have the same $15 you started off with.

I believe you're confusing the % chance of hitting your hand on the turn using the rule of x 2. Simply put, take the number of outs you have and multiply by 2. So, if you're looking at flop bet to see a turn and you have 15 outs...15 x 2 = 30% chance of hitting one of your outs on the turn. This only applies if there is to any action on the next street (checking or betting). The same thing applies for call in a turn bet to see a river. However if you're facing an all in on the flop, if you call you'll know you're seeing both a turn card and river card. So, the rule is to multiply by 4...15 outs x 4 = ~60% of hitting your hand. Its actually less, but this is a simple rule of thumb. You mulitply by 4 since you figure out for both draws since in an all in you are guaranteed to see both cards. Where as, if it's just a bet, you figure outs for each draw individually since you still have the options to fold on a later street and may only see one draw.

Also, we're trying to help you since you, so quit being such an asshat.
 
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c9h13no3

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Can we end thread please? Nobody is being productive and I think personal attacks don't help anyone.
Personal attacks entertain the hell out of me, especially when the victim of these attacks routinely attacks first, and looks absolutely ridiculous in defense.
 
Dorkus Malorkus

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You're on the button in a ring game with 67H. Solid player UTG comes in for 2BB. You call. Flop comes K5H, 4D. He pushes half his stack, 20BB blinds. You have him just barely covered. What do you do?

post a horrible thread on the internet about it, then proceed to get into the world's stupidest argument about a poker term that's very simply defined.

locking this crap for the sake of everyone's sanity.
 
Irexes

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Aw crap I was going to lock it too.

If I lock it as well has it been locked twice or just once?
 
tenbob

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I cannot believe that I wased 20 minutes of my life reading this thread.

Edit : Quality lock :)
 
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