KMC1828
Legend
Im sorry i dont have the HH for these 2 hands, but i remember them just fine and unbiasedly.
hand 1: i have about 10k chips, villian has 4k chips. im in MP, villian is in SB (blinds are 600)
i get AK and raise to 3900 because there were 3 calls in front of me. villain reraises all in like 300 more with KJs of course i call.
flop comes 2 spades. turn is her J. river is irrelevant.
in my eyes, its quite obvious that i either have KJ dominated like i did, or the person was WAY behind with KJ in the sense that i either had JJ QQ KK or AA. im not sure how they are calling this all in, maybe someone can explain it to me if theres something besides them being a donk that could have induced the call.
hand 2. i have roughly 10k chips again, this time blinds are 1200 w. antes.
i get dealt AJ in MP with 1 caller in front of me with about 2k more chips than i do. i simply go all in. a big stack with about 60k calls my all in, and then the original caller reraises to him all in, of course the big stack calls.
big stack has A8 and the original caller has QT.
the original caller gets his T, nothing else is realy relevant other than that there was a K on the flop with that T giving me a gutshot.
i REALLY dont understand this play because this is extremely deep in the tournament, 23 people left out of 445. Why are they even limping with QT to begin with in E/M P, and why is calling/reraising the all ins even a thought here? its obvious we have QT beat, why put yourself in the situation where you need to out draw?
both of these situations could probably easily be summed up by saying "they were donks... that was a 2.25 buyin wow they were just donks", but im looking to find out if there was something else that could make them call with those hands that have missed.
hand 1: i have about 10k chips, villian has 4k chips. im in MP, villian is in SB (blinds are 600)
i get AK and raise to 3900 because there were 3 calls in front of me. villain reraises all in like 300 more with KJs of course i call.
flop comes 2 spades. turn is her J. river is irrelevant.
in my eyes, its quite obvious that i either have KJ dominated like i did, or the person was WAY behind with KJ in the sense that i either had JJ QQ KK or AA. im not sure how they are calling this all in, maybe someone can explain it to me if theres something besides them being a donk that could have induced the call.
hand 2. i have roughly 10k chips again, this time blinds are 1200 w. antes.
i get dealt AJ in MP with 1 caller in front of me with about 2k more chips than i do. i simply go all in. a big stack with about 60k calls my all in, and then the original caller reraises to him all in, of course the big stack calls.
big stack has A8 and the original caller has QT.
the original caller gets his T, nothing else is realy relevant other than that there was a K on the flop with that T giving me a gutshot.
i REALLY dont understand this play because this is extremely deep in the tournament, 23 people left out of 445. Why are they even limping with QT to begin with in E/M P, and why is calling/reraising the all ins even a thought here? its obvious we have QT beat, why put yourself in the situation where you need to out draw?
both of these situations could probably easily be summed up by saying "they were donks... that was a 2.25 buyin wow they were just donks", but im looking to find out if there was something else that could make them call with those hands that have missed.
