It does feel aggressive however.
16% is high
if he had only 3-bet one time his 3-bet percentage would probably be something like 3%, not 16%
It is EXTREMELY unlikely that he only had a chance to 3-bet 6 times in 40-ish hands, agree/disagree?
fwiw once seems right. he has raised 6 times (0.15*40). the most that can be is 1/6 as x/6 = 0.16 so x =1 , it's weird that pt doesn't give it as 17% though.
Yeah it is. Maybe some stats are truncated rather than rounded.
NO what your missing is this.. look at the definition of PFR (thats why I got you to post it)
It is the number of times a player makes any raise.
It includes opens, 3bets, 4bets, shoves; any raise
Over the 40 hands played the player has a PFR of 15%
15% of 40 is 6
so his opens + 3bets + 4bets + shoves can never total more than 6
His 3bet figure is greater than 0 and less than 6 and his PRF + 3bet equals 6
yeah, I think he 3-bet 3-6 times, where do you get that I said it was more than 6?
More likely that MM just looked at it in a pop up saw 16.67 and then typed 16 here than it being truncated.Yeah it is. Maybe some stats are truncated rather than rounded.
I've never seen anybody with a stat of 0.8 truncated to 0, always been rounded up to 1.
wait
your 3-bet% can certainly be higher than your PFR
your PFR% is the times you raise/total number of hands dealt
3-bet is times you reraise/times there was a raise before you
so there you are clearly wrong if you are talking about percentages.
So you think he 3bet 4 times in 40 hands but only opened himself twice? Highly unlikely.yeah, I think he 3-bet 3-6 times, where do you get that I said it was more than 6?
If he played 40 hands and someone raised before him 25 times
and he 3-bet 4 times
he would have a 3-bet % of 16.
this is possible/plausible/likely
you realize you are saying he only had a chance to 3-bet 6 times in a 40-hand session and did so 1 time?
Do you think 3-betting one time in 6-7 orbits is a lot? Because 16% is a lot.
The truncated 16.667 to 16 is possible but seems unlikely that it would be 1 in 6.
So you think he 3bet 4 times in 40 hands but only opened himself twice? Highly unlikely.
So you think he 3bet 4 times in 40 hands but only opened himself twice? Highly unlikely.
A 3-bet % of 16 is highly unlikely as well.
take a look at a sample of 40 hands where you 3-bet at least one time and figure out the numbers.
At the start of a session my 3bet stat is through the roof. 16 is low.
ok then in 40 hands how many times are you 3-betting and what is your percentage?
Why are you a rude ass? I'm asking for clarification because this is a pretty fundamental misunderstanding for one of us.
How many times do you think he faced a raise in 40 hands? Why don't you answer any questions that I've asked?
um, this is a 22/15 with a 3-bet % of 16. generally 22/15s have a 3-bet % of 2-8 or so
what am I missing?