Stu_Ungar
Legend
Silver Level
Stu_Ungar
Legend
Silver Level
exact definition please (with formula)
B
baudib1
Legend
Silver Level
Here's my interpretation of his stats:
in 41 hands (it has to be 41 hands), he
has played 9 of them (22%)
raised 6 times (15%)
Of those 6 times, he 3-bet either 3 times, 4 times, 5 times or 6 times, but he cannot have 3-bet only 1 or 2 times because 1 and 2 cannot make 16% of anything, unless it was 16.7 and he was rounding down.
It would be extremely unlikely anyway, it's probably 4 times out of 25 or 3 out of 19 times.
in 41 hands (it has to be 41 hands), he
has played 9 of them (22%)
raised 6 times (15%)
Of those 6 times, he 3-bet either 3 times, 4 times, 5 times or 6 times, but he cannot have 3-bet only 1 or 2 times because 1 and 2 cannot make 16% of anything, unless it was 16.7 and he was rounding down.
It would be extremely unlikely anyway, it's probably 4 times out of 25 or 3 out of 19 times.
B
baudib1
Legend
Silver Level
what? you didn't answer a single question I asked.
Formula: (Times raised/hands dealt) * 100
please explain how 1 can be 16% of anything? (it can't)
1 in 5 times is 20%
1 in 6 times is 17%
1 in 7 times is 14%
and that would mean there was only a chance to 3-bet 5-7 times in 40 hands, which is incredibly unlikely.
Formula: (Times raised/hands dealt) * 100
please explain how 1 can be 16% of anything? (it can't)
1 in 5 times is 20%
1 in 6 times is 17%
1 in 7 times is 14%
and that would mean there was only a chance to 3-bet 5-7 times in 40 hands, which is incredibly unlikely.
WVHillbilly
Legend
Silver Level
No need to do a count. Just bring up the hand in replayer and look at the 3bet number. It will show the actual numbers (in this case it will be 1/6).
Stu_Ungar
Legend
Silver Level
That will work in PT3 but I dont think it will in HEM. I dont think HEM stores the stats that were shown at the time.
Stu_Ungar
Legend
Silver Level
Def
What we can agree on (I think ) is that this guy has raised 6 hands.
As a 3bet is also a PFR that 6 includes his 3bets.
16% of 6 is too close to 1 for him to have 3bet any other amount
Remembering that the 16% the 15% and possibly the 40hands have been rounded a little and 16% of 6 is 0.96 .. its just too close.
They may not even be rounded.. its possible that truncation is used.
What we can agree on (I think ) is that this guy has raised 6 hands.
As a 3bet is also a PFR that 6 includes his 3bets.
16% of 6 is too close to 1 for him to have 3bet any other amount
Remembering that the 16% the 15% and possibly the 40hands have been rounded a little and 16% of 6 is 0.96 .. its just too close.
They may not even be rounded.. its possible that truncation is used.
Stu_Ungar
Legend
Silver Level
I know this
What I am saying is the PFR includes 3 bets
so 15% of 40 is 6 (yes / no)
16% of 6 is 0.96 (yes / no)
0.96 is very close to 1 (yes / no )
The figures of 15 16 and 40 have either been truncated or rounded (yes / no)
B
baudib1
Legend
Silver Level
The only reason the number 6 would be involved here in the 3-bet calculation is if:
A. In the course of 40~ hands, he only saw a raise to him 6 times (unlikely)
B. Of the 6 times he raised, he 3-bet all 6 times (possible but unlikely).
A. In the course of 40~ hands, he only saw a raise to him 6 times (unlikely)
B. Of the 6 times he raised, he 3-bet all 6 times (possible but unlikely).
Stu_Ungar
Legend
Silver Level
Because Im making a few assumptions that would take ages to write out in full and you are not the easiest person to explain stuff to in short, if I misplace a comma or something Ill end up in an never-ending-debate.
Needless to say you see this guy plays 22/15
He has raised 6 times, I think that one of those raises is a 3bet, you estimate the figure to be 3-4.
Does it not feel way too aggressive for a 22/15 to be 3betting equal or greater than the number of times he opens?
B
baudib1
Legend
Silver Level
It does feel aggressive, however:
16% is high
if he had only 3-bet one time in this 40-hand session, his 3-bet percentage would probably be something like 2%-4%, not 16%
It is EXTREMELY unlikely (even if a very tight/passive game) that he only had a chance to 3-bet 6 times in 40-ish hands, agree/disagree?
your patronizing tone is unappreciated, especially when you have still failed to answer a single question.
16% is high
if he had only 3-bet one time in this 40-hand session, his 3-bet percentage would probably be something like 2%-4%, not 16%
It is EXTREMELY unlikely (even if a very tight/passive game) that he only had a chance to 3-bet 6 times in 40-ish hands, agree/disagree?
your patronizing tone is unappreciated, especially when you have still failed to answer a single question.