Questions on home tournament

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HoppysKid

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At our monthly home game tournament we play 5 card draw, 6 card stud, and 7 card stud.
While playing 5 card draw, a player is all-in with the ante. He is first to act but cannot because he is all-in. He is dealt a full house, everyone else folds. Does his hand go into the muck? Can he play that hand? Is he in for the next hand for the amount of the first ante?
I have my opinion,but there was plenty of discussion at the game the other night.
Thanks
HK
 
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ekgbeat

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At our monthly home game tournament we play 5 card draw, 6 card stud, and 7 card stud.
While playing 5 card draw, a player is all-in with the ante. He is first to act but cannot because he is all-in. He is dealt a full house, everyone else folds. Does his hand go into the muck? Can he play that hand? Is he in for the next hand for the amount of the first ante?
I have my opinion,but there was plenty of discussion at the game the other night.
Thanks
HK

In most home games that I play in it is "house rules". The host of the game has the final call and that's it. Just like rules at casinos can vary by the casino.

IMO, not sure if I understand how everything played out, but it sounds like All-In Player (AIP) could only pay the ante. Lets say ante is 5 and there are 4 players left. Pot that AIP can win should be 20, and let's say there is a side pot of 50 from the blinds.

Action: Everyone mucks and AIP is last to act. "everyone else folds"

Does his hand go into the muck? AIP is the winner of the 20 pot and does not have to show the hand. The player to act behind AIP is the winning of the 50 side pot if there was a side pot.

Can he play that hand? Chip and a chair. AIP can play for the amount in front of them.

Is he in for the next hand for the amount of the first ante? AIP now has 20 chips so they can play.


I would like to hear how it played out, and what you thought was the correct way to handle it.
 
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HoppysKid

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We were playing 5 card draw, no blinds, everyone antes for themselves. Correct, the AIP only had the amount for the ante and in this case the AIP was the first to act, but had no play. He also didn't know at that point what the rest of the players were going to do. In our game, if the table gets checked around to the dealer, and the dealer doesn't open the pot, the cards are mucked, reantied.
The AIP's cards did go into the muck and he was in the next pot for the amount of the ante he called on the first hand.
The reasoning is if someone with a pat hand in first position didn't open and everyone folds, he cannot show his hand and expect to win the antes.
Was this the correct action? Or, because a player is all-in the the pot is essentially open, should he had won the antes?
Thanks for your post
HK
 
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ekgbeat

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In our game, if the table gets checked around to the dealer, and the dealer doesn't open the pot, the cards are mucked, reantied.
I'm not sure I have heard of this happening in stud.
 
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