JMTalbert
Rock Star
Silver Level
So, I've got a good size stack (10 of 50) midway through a 90 player SnG on FTP. I'm in the SB when they give me 5s6s. One early position limper and the guy on the button calls. With two limpers, I decide to call & see the cheap flop. To my joyous suprise, 4d, 7c, 8s hits the board. I don't want to scare off the action, so I bet half the pot. BB and early limp fold, but button calls. OK, the hook is set, now to reel him in. Turn brings 8h. I'm a little concerned about the board pairing and the flush beigh out there, so I raise the pot this time. I don't want him to chase and hit the boat, but kinda hope he has the set of 8's and I get paid. Well he called. He must have that set or two pair. When the flop brings the 8c, I figure the odds that he is really holding that other 8 is low. His stack was smaller than mine and he was just about pot committed, so when I raised 1/2 the pot, he pushed back all in & I had to call. He sure as hell was playing 8d10c in position! He hit top pair and I guess I priced him in by only betting half the pot on the flop.
My question is how should I have played that? With top pair then turning to trips, no way I could have gotten him off the hand after the turn. Had I gone all in or drastically overbet the pot postflop from the SB, I may have gotten no action. I know the 400 chips would have been better than losing half my stack, but what would be the correct play after flopping the nuts when first to act?
My question is how should I have played that? With top pair then turning to trips, no way I could have gotten him off the hand after the turn. Had I gone all in or drastically overbet the pot postflop from the SB, I may have gotten no action. I know the 400 chips would have been better than losing half my stack, but what would be the correct play after flopping the nuts when first to act?