Originally Posted by Jblocher1
So let's say you have a villain who has a 3bet pre stat of 50%. That means he will be 3 betting 50% of the total hands he is dealt pre. That's half the hands in the entire game.
It's always been my understanding that the 3-bet percentage is a measure of 3-betting when such an action is possible. After all, one cannot 3-bet if there is no action or only limpers before you — you could only raise. So, I don't think that it's equivalent to a percentage of hands dealt.
I like the rest of the explanation for AQ playing well against a wide 3-bet, then not looking so good, exactly where a 4bet /fold is used