I was watching some poker on television and saw this hand
Player 1 has 7h8s
Player 2 has Kd3d
Flop is 6hKc9s giving player 2 top pair and player one a straight draw.
Player 1 checks and player 2 bets 4,000 into a 12,000 pot making it 16,000. A call of 4,000 to win 16,000 is pot odds
of 4:1. A straight draw has 8 outs, ~17% chance or 5:1 to have made the straight on the next card. Player 1 calls the raise but I do not understand why since he is not getting the right price on a call. Even if I think about implied odds I still do not see why. Pot odds
should be higher than the odds of making the hand for it to be a call and be profitable.
Not that it matters since I'm only interested about the flop but the turn comes 2c and player 1 checks and player 2 bets 12,000 into a 20,000 pot giving pot odds of about 2.6:1. This here would be a clear fold as the price is too high but player 1 still calls. Regardless, why would player 1 call the bet on the flop with pot odds of 4:1 and odds to make the hand 5:1.
I just found the video of the hand (http://youtu.be/pxtvkFBosnc?t=5m39s