Multiply your outs by 4 on the flop? - Why? (a serious question)
I thought on the flop... say you need a 4 to make your hand, you would have 4 outs and with two cards commin that would be 8 outs divided by the total number of unknown cards left... so on the flop it would be 8/47 or 45 assuming your opponent doesn't have ur out. so percentage way it would be like less than 20%
That's how I do my math...
So, lets say you are in the above situation, and the total pot ATM is 100 chips, therefore, your odds being 20% I would only call a bet of 20 chips or less on that flop in order to "get" my pot odds. I've assumed you did Not Add the bet to the pot prior to doing math, (because if you do that, no matter the bet, the math you do will give you at least 50% odds which isn't correct)