Questions regarding rules

I was playing poker and went all in, 1100 on top, the next person calls, the second person raises 4800, the fourth person calls and then deals out the flop. The person next to me never called the 4800. All the other people where all in with me at this point. I said the hand is dead....

The person next me would have won but never paid the 4800.

Is the hand dead?

Yep - if he had chips left and did not call the re-raise then he is no longer involved in the hand.

Only the guy who did not call is dead. You and the other callers are still live.

Yea - I assumed when you said the hand you mean his hand.

But the person that didn't call never folded. They did not give her the opportunity.

Bjah1650 said:

But the person that didn't call never folded. They did not give her the opportunity.

Click to expand...

It's her job to say wait, I'm still acting!!!

It's so someone can't see a flop cheap and then say, oh I wasn't going to call and then fold after they see the flop for a discount. Therefore, if they don't put the chips in, and the flop comes, that hand is now dead.

Yep, that's just the way it is. It sucks for her though if the dealer put down the flop prematurely...

yes. If you folded, you are out of the game.

So if she didn't muck her hand but the dealer moved past her and dealt the flop.. she's phoocked? (I've never seen it happen.... I've had a dealer just about deal the flop while I was on the button, deciding what my play would be, but managed to yell at him prior to him turning over the cards).

Isn't this the dealer's responsibility???

If you miss your turn to act and three (3) people already acted behind you - your hand is dead.

Your scenario is missing alot of players and actions and sequence so it's hard to say.

If you were UTG and pushed allin, then the raiser plus two blinds would have acted before it got back to the player UTG+1 with only $1100 in the pot upon the flop. Therefore, she did have the opportunity and her hand is dead.

Here it is in Robert's Rules of Poker:
To retain the right to act, a player must stop the action by calling "time" (or an equivalent word). Failure to stop the action before three or more players have acted behind you may cause you to lose the right to act. You cannot forfeit your right to act if any player in front of you has not acted, only if you fail to act when it legally becomes your turn. Therefore, if you wait for someone whose turn comes before you, and three or more players act behind you, this still does not hinder your right to act.
http://www.texasholdem-poker.com/roberts_rules_of_poker/betting-and-raising

If UTG+1 really did not get the opportunity to act upon the reraise before the flop then treat it as a dealer error.

Roberts Rules of Poker (Section 16-4)
"If the cards are prematurely flopped before the betting is complete, or if the flop contains too many cards, the boardcards are mixed with the remainder of the deck. The burncard remains on the table. After shuffling, the dealer cuts the deck and deals a new flop without burning a card."

Redealing the flop can get very sticky, especially if the initial flop hit someone good. Plus reflopping gives the others in the hand a second chance if they missed.

By that time, no one in the hand is happy.

Fortunately for me I protested and the hand was labeled dead.
But since I protested I wanted to know what the rule was.

I play at a place on Saturday that there was a mess up and they
labeled the hand dead and replayed. So I thought that was the best resolution for all.

I would have never guessed only her hand was dead.

They split all our chips up and redid the hand. But I felt terrible for the lady that would have won. Even if I didn't feel it was appropriate for me to lose a hand I was "all in" on when she did not call the reraise.

Thanks for the feedback!

That was still the wrong way to do it. Her hand was dead, ie just like if she folded. She should have lost the chips she had in. And who ever won the hand, should have kept all the chips.