Originally Posted by lukeellul92
So, say I have a %20 to hit my outs on the flop, would I need 5-1 pot odds to mathematically make call and be in profit over x number of hands? is that how it works?
No, you need 4-1 pot odds.
If you win the hand you'll profit 4x your calling amount.....right ?
Well if you have 20 % to hit your outs you'll win 1 outof 5 times and so obv lose 4 outof 5 times.....sounds clear?
So, one time you win the hand and make a profit of 4xCalling amount which is $8.
4 Times you'll lose the calling amount which totals $8.
Suppose there's a raise of $2 on the flop which makes the pot $10.
Calling there for $2 gives you 5-1 odds...invest $2 to get a $10 profit.
If you have 20% to hit your outs it means you'll win 1 outof 5 hands.
Which means 1 hand you'll profit $10, the other 4 hands you'll lose $2 each, which is $8 total, which will bring you a profit of $2 over these 5 hands.
Now suppose you're still gonna hit your outs 20% of time.
Though, now there's a flopbet of $2 making the pot $8.
In this case you have to call $ 2 to profit $8.
Your pot odds are 4-1.
Still, 1 outof 5 hands you'll hit your outs and get your profit, which is $8.
The other 4 hands you'll lose, which totals for 4 x $2 = $8.
Here we are BE, although only theoratically because rake will cost you.
Important....here I'm just talking about flops, without going into implied or reversed odds....