Question about Poker Odds Table

Hello, I was wondering something about the poker odds table below.

Situation: Let's say I have 1 out on the flop, that would be 45:1 odds to the turn.
My question is what if I have 1 out on the TURN, would the odds be 45:1 or 22:1 ?
The odds table only tells you the odds for (flop --> turn) and (flop --> river) but doesnt say odds for (turn --> river)

The way I worded everything may be kind of difficult to understand, please let me know and i'll clarify.

The odds for the 'one street' from the turn to river are almost identical to the odds for 'one street' from flop to turn. i.e. 45:1 in your example.
They are actually very slightly different as one extra card has now been used from the deck, but essentially the same. The odds are roughly half (22:1) for 'two streets' from flop to river, because you are going to get 2 cards (so double the chance)

Yeah would technically be 44:1 for the turn > river but just think of it as the same.

The odds are half. If its 22:1 it's 44:1 because you have one less card.

I've always stuck to percentages myself (could never really do the ratio thing while playing... don't know why, seems simpler...). I only need the approximate odds at the table though, which is like:

Hand Odds % = Outs x (#cards left to see after flop) x 2

Always worked for me... If you deal w/ percentages sometimes anyway...

AllInDom said:

The odds are half. If its 22:1 it's 44:1 because you have one less card.

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I'm not sure that this adds very much after Mine and WV's more complete explanations....

plus that's not half, it's double

Weird side question about odds logic and it may take a little extra explanation on my part after to find out if i'm asking it right. Are the flop-river odds actually double the flop-turn odds or is flop-river odds more like taking 2 chances at hitting flop-turn odds? Um... let me try to further clarify what i'm asking because I've always been confused about this...

Let's say we have a situation where there's like a 25% to hit by turn and 50% to hit by river. Is it really 50% by the river or is it like being given 25% to hit by turn and if not, then being given another 25% to hit by the river. Are the situations mathematically the same? I guess I ask because it throws me off when I think to myself "...well I'd rather take a 2:1 flip than making a 4:1 flip(s) twice..." This make any sense to y'all? 'cause i've been pondering this question for awhile now...

It's relevance to me is in determining whether I am actually getting the odds I've always thought I was getting if I go to showdown...

Ezekiel162 said:

Weird side question about odds logic and it may take a little extra explanation on my part after to find out if i'm asking it right. Are the flop-river odds actually double the flop-turn odds or is flop-river odds more like taking 2 chances at hitting flop-turn odds? Um... let me try to further clarify what i'm asking because I've always been confused about this...

Let's say we have a situation where there's like a 25% to hit by turn and 50% to hit by river. Is it really 50% by the river or is it like being given 25% to hit by turn and if not, then being given another 25% to hit by the river. Are the situations mathematically the same? I guess I ask because it throws me off when I think to myself "...well I'd rather take a 2:1 flip than making a 4:1 flip(s) twice..." This make any sense to y'all? 'cause i've been pondering this question for awhile now...

It's relevance to me is in determining whether I am actually getting the odds I've always thought I was getting if I go to showdown...

Click to expand...

If, for simplicity, we discount the minor differences between FL>T and T>R, then in your example above it is 25% and 25%. But it doesn't make any sense to prefer to think of it as 50% once or 25% twice as it is the same thing. (incidentally the ratios are 1:1 and 3:1)

However, the question of whether you have the odds depends on if you are calling a bet for 1 street or 2. If you or your opponent is all in on the flop then you have 50% odds for the 2 streets to come.

But if you are deep stacked then you have to think in terms of 25% for the one card to come on the Turn, because then there may well be further betting, and you will have to evaluate again for your odds to see the last card. In this situation it would be wrong to assume that you had 50% odds after the flop with 2 cards still to come, but then face further betting after the turn card.

Tvm Samango. You've answered my question to where I now understand completely. I had been puzzled about this for awhile...

Samango said:

...(incidentally the ratios are 1:1 and 3:1)...

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One quick further question, I'm glad you understood why i asked my original question as a percentage because had i tried to use ratios i would have confused things. I know (think?) that ratios and odds are like +/- 1 the difference between each other. Is there any quick method you use that ensures that I wouldn't confuse the two while calculating quickly at the table? Believe it or not, this is the only reason i've never used them at the table. Shame, because everyone uses them and I feel left out using only percentages... tnx...

Ezekiel162 said:

I know (think?) that ratios and odds are like +/- 1 the difference between each other.

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I'm not sure what you mean by +/- 1. It seems like you may be trying to reconcile my interpretation of 1:1 and 3:1, with your previous thinking of 2:1 and 4:1. (see note below *)

I actually find percentages much easier to work with because they're universal.
i.e. always part of a hundred whereas ratios can get unwieldly:-
for example

85% is 17:3 (or 5.7:1)
71% is 5:2 (roughly) (or 2.4:1)

17:3 and 5:2 are very difficult to compare with each other. You can compare them a little more easily if you reduce them to a ratio to 1 (i.e.5.7 and 2.4) but the first one somehow gives the impression of being more than twice the second!

* One reason for this and possibly the reason that you may find them problematic is that, for example,
25% is one in four. I'm sure that you can imagine that in your head. (because you are already familiar with percentages)
But the ratio is 25:75 or 1:3 (both sides of the ratio add up to the four)

In fact imagining them as 100's may be an easy way to picture the simpler ones

1:1 50:50 (50%)
1:2 33:66 (33%)
1:3 25:75 (25%)
1:4 20:80 (20%)
1:9 10:90 (10%)

In the end I think percentages are easier.

Hope this helps

Helps a lot... ty...

Samango said:

...* One reason for this and possibly the reason that you may find them problematic is that, for example,
25% is one in four. I'm sure that you can imagine that in your head. (because you are already familiar with percentages)
But the ratio is 25:75 or 1:3 (both sides of the ratio add up to the four)...

Click to expand...

This is EXACTLY what throws me off. Mixing up ratios and fractions when some people switch up how they are wording outs, like "he has 2 to 1 odds against" as opposed to "he has a 1 in 3 (33%) chance of making this". At the tables I sometimes get confused and think 2 to 1 odds is like 50%. lol... obviously this could lead to quite a catastrophic outcome. Hence, I have stuck to percentages up to this point...

Samango said:

...In the end I think percentages are easier.

Click to expand...

This is what I think as well but the poker community expresses a lot of info as ratios so I'm just gonna have to suck it up and force myself to practice more with the standard format. Eventually it'll stick huh?