J
johnoman
Enthusiast
Silver Level
I'm currently watching some EPT main evens on Youtube; I have a question about pot odds and pricing.
A hand between Brandstrom and Shorr in the Barcelon main event.
The post started at $265 00 with a raise of $485 000. Taking the pot to $755 000. Brandstrom needed to call the bet with $355 000. the commentary team stated that this was a 2:1 pot odds call. I understand where theyare getting these numbers from but the next comment is what stood out.
James Hartigan on the commentary panel said "he has been priced in". What does he mean by this? The hands were AKs vs KQo.
Am I incorrect to assume that pot odds are only really used to calculate whether or not to call a draw? If pot odds are 2:1 and the equity is 4:1, this would mean a fold unless implied odds dictate otherwise?
A hand between Brandstrom and Shorr in the Barcelon main event.
The post started at $265 00 with a raise of $485 000. Taking the pot to $755 000. Brandstrom needed to call the bet with $355 000. the commentary team stated that this was a 2:1 pot odds call. I understand where theyare getting these numbers from but the next comment is what stood out.
James Hartigan on the commentary panel said "he has been priced in". What does he mean by this? The hands were AKs vs KQo.
Am I incorrect to assume that pot odds are only really used to calculate whether or not to call a draw? If pot odds are 2:1 and the equity is 4:1, this would mean a fold unless implied odds dictate otherwise?