This is a discussion on Pot Split within the online poker forums, in the Learning Poker section; If two players give all-in (without intending to cover the amount of chips of the opponent), if they give victory and tie to these two
If two players give all-in (without intending to cover the amount of chips of the opponent), if they give victory and tie to these two players who gave all-in, do they divide the pot equally? For example, player "x" all-in with 1000 chips, and another player "y" all-in with 2000 chips, the two will split the pot equally? (each one gets 1500 chips?)
no , player y can call just 1000 , no more , so split is 1000
5th January 2018, 10:09 PM
Does this rule apply to No Limit Texas Hold'em?
5th January 2018, 10:15 PM
And in the case of player "x" all-in (with 3000 chips), and two other players "y" and "z" all-in (each with 1400 chips). The players "y" and "z" win the "x" but between them comes a draw. (For example, the "x" had a pair and the other players win with two pairs of the same value).
How's it going? The "x" player gets 200 chips?
5th January 2018, 10:26 PM
Poker at: All of them
Game: Hold Em/Razz
Player X will have 1600 chips left over because that is how much more he had then the other 2 players. Players Y and Z will then split the 1400 put in by player x, so they will get 700 each and after this hand Player X will be at 1600, and player Y and Z will both be at 2100.