B
bigrog70
Enthusiast
Silver Level
I love flopping the set (pocket pair w/ a matching card on the flop) ... because it's hidden and all. But I find it so rarely gets paid off. Seems like (and I know that's just personal perception w/ biases and all) if I flop the set and bet to take away drawing odds (say half pot), everyone folds ... or I get outdrawn anyway.
But here's my question. Odds of flopping the set are approx. 1-in-8. When calculating implied odds, do I only calculate based on the money that OTHER people bet post-flop. For example, let's say I limp vs. 2 others pre-flop for a pot of 3BB. Does that mean that the pot needs to grow to 8BB after subtracting my post-flop bets, to pay off my pre-flop limp?
Thanks.
But here's my question. Odds of flopping the set are approx. 1-in-8. When calculating implied odds, do I only calculate based on the money that OTHER people bet post-flop. For example, let's say I limp vs. 2 others pre-flop for a pot of 3BB. Does that mean that the pot needs to grow to 8BB after subtracting my post-flop bets, to pay off my pre-flop limp?
Thanks.