Odds help

A

Anthony Garcia

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Hello everyone, I have a question about odds / pot odds.

The formula for the pot odds is:

for example

I have 3 outs (14.67: 1 flop to turn, 14.33: 1 turn to river)

475 pot
opponent bets 47
to call

475/97 = 4.86: 1

or

475 pot
opponent bet 47
to call 47

475 + 47 = 522/47 = 11.10: 1

or

475 + 47 + 47/47 = 12.06: 1

Could someone explain this a little better? I read the tutorial on this site and other sites, a book by David Sklansky. But no explanation coincides with each other.

I memorized all odds table
Example
I know that 8 outs are 4.88: 1 (16%) on the flop and turn to 4.75: 1 in the river. (Approximately 32%)
So I need to learn me percentages? or calculate them?
I see more easy to calculate odds ratios That Percentages,
that is your opinion about this that I say?
If I have 8 outs and the count gives me 22.19: 1 I call?
I can play with approximate numbers?
4.75: 1 (5: 1)


Thanks for reading, I hope your answer!
 
Last edited:
U

UncleConRon

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My Opinion

I don't o with that calculation of odds. You see you play the probabilities. If two how cards have hit recently with you. You have 8 outs. You probably will not hit your out. If those hole cards have not hit in two or three chances you probably will hit your out.
 
vinnie

vinnie

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I don't o with that calculation of odds. You see you play the probabilities. If two how cards have hit recently with you. You have 8 outs. You probably will not hit your out. If those hole cards have not hit in two or three chances you probably will hit your out.

3risbcx.jpg
 
vinnie

vinnie

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I can play with approximate numbers?

I am going to shorten your whole question down to this simple question, because the answer to this question is yes. You can and usually will play with just the approximate numbers. If you have a flush draw, you can just go with the assumption that you'll hit it 36% or 33% by the river and not worry about the exact number (about 34.9676% -- although it varies depending on what the other player has). In reality, your decision is rarely that close that the approximate number and the actual number would give different answers.

This is even more apparent when you realize that you don't know an opponents exact cards for sure. You're making an educated guess about what he has and what you'll need to win. Sometimes you'll be wrong in one direction or the other. Sometimes, you might not have 9 outs. You might have fewer than you think. Sometimes, you might have more outs than you expect. You might even be ahead already.

You should have a general idea of how often you'll hit your hands. But, if you're worrying about hundredths of a percent, you're focusing on the wrong things.

Pot odds are important, but again, you do well by just getting close.

Pot is 475 then opponent bets 47? That's about 525-50 or 10.5 to 1. (There is 475 + 47 out in the middle, and you are risking 47 to claim it). Sure, the actual number is 11.1-1, but there's really very few situations where 10.5-1 is a fold and 11.1-1 is not. Actually, for 10.5-1, you can call with 4 or more outs. That's a pretty wide range.

After a hand is over, when you are doing hand reviews, you might want to nail down the exact numbers. Those post-play analysis sessions will help correct any errors you might have as well as fine-tune your instincts in future sessions. But, in the heat of the moment, just go with approximate values.
 
A

Anthony Garcia

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Thank you !

He was worried about something that did not matter
then, my question is also because I watch a video of Phill Hellmouth

He explained that 9 outs are 5: 1 and the pot are 4: 1 then
he fold.


I know that 9 outs are 4.22: 1 to turn,
He says they are 5: 1

I read that to calculate the pot odds formula is


52 cards

-2 In your hand

50 cards

-3 On the board

47 cards

-9 outs

38/9 = 4.22: 1

Phil calculates 47/9 = 5.22: 1 or so I think ..

Then this table that I memorize this wrong ??

https://www.cardschat.com/pkimg/strat/poker-odds-chart.jpg

In the case that
in the pot has $ 150 and my opponent bet all in with 3400 (22.6: 1) there is no hand to play, looking at the table, I'm wrong?

and the pots odds are 5: 6? as it calculated? as compared?

Thank you very much ! I appreciate this

Pd: haha that image :D
 
vinnie

vinnie

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OK, I watched this video. Phil is wrong. You don't need 5-1 for a flush draw. It is 37-9 (like you already pointed out) or basically 4-1. If you are up against a set, it is 8 outs, 38-8, which is almost 5-1... but he wasn't saying that. I am shocked that this didn't get caught by someone earlier.

You are always going to get at least 1-1 pot odds. You are being offered 3550 for 3400. That's 1.044-1. Now, in this case, there is no normal drawing hand that you can play. But, you can play many made hands. If you flopped top set on a dry board, you can call that shove because you don't need to improve.

Note: There are some "drawing" hands which are a favorite. If you have Js-Ts, on a 9s-8s-5c flop, you are able to call that shove against pretty much everything but a set, QQ, and 7s6s. You're a favorite against AA, even though you don't even have a pair. You're even a favorite against 7-6 for the made straight (unless they have 7s-6s exactly). You're a favorite against 9-8, for two pair. So, yeah, there are times you can call even when the other player offers you horrible pot odds.
 
A

Anthony Garcia

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My God a professional teaching bad
the lesson is difficult for a novice
you know :confused:
so

ok, not calculate those hands

in online poker just

pot / to call = x: x

I do not add my opponent bet
the computer Automatically adds all bets
I'm right ?

That's all, and that's my last question!

Thank you very much Vinnie. :)
 
XXPXXP

XXPXXP

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47 to call 47+475

you have 3 outs, winning percentage is approximately 6% on flop to turn.
3 outs = 3/(52-7)=approxmately = 3/50=6%

so you are asking how to convert 6% to pot odds?

6% wining rate = 6/(100-6) pot odds= 6/appox 96=1/16
so 47/(475+47) = approximately 1/11

so is that what you ask?
 
S

Sidetracked

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Going strictly by odds vs pot odds is more appropriate in limit poker. the trouble in big bet poker (no limit and pot limit) is that there can be huge implied odds if you hit your hand.

Use them as a guideline, but don't get too hung up on the exact numbers, to 2 decimal places.
 
R

Running Nose II

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Why so complicated? Pot odds are a simple calculation to ensure you are getting a good value bet. You're in the pot and the flop goes down. You know 5 of the cards (2 hole cards and 3 in the flop), leaving 47 unknown. You know how many cards will improve your hand (outs), say 12. Subtract 12 from 47 and divide this by your outs (47 -12 =35 divided by 12 =approximately 3). So the odds of making your hand are 3/1. You know how much is in the pot and how much it will cost to stay in. Say for example $100 in the pot and $10 to stay in the pot odds are 5/1. When the pot odds are greater than the odds of making your hand you are getting good value. Remember 47 minus outs then divided by outs equals odds of making a hand.
 
B

Broon1234

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Don't forget about implied odds which are even more guess work. Calculate a bit of table enough you have a feel for when you're playing
 
A

Anthony Garcia

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Hello and thanks for your answers, could not be aware of the situation, because I had a couple of medical studies, work and bills to pay.
I have doubts, because watch videos and books, and many did not coincide his explanation of odds / pot odds.
Some people take percentages, ratios other
It not which is better,
but for now
I ratios is easier for me

But for example
Phill Hellmouth
Explain
that 9 outs are 5: 1
do not
4: 1
as we all know
I suppose
and he may be right

Viewing the table
http://www.pokerlogia.com/wp-content/uploads/Poker-Outs-Chart-poker-argentina.gif

(I'm sorry the site forbids me
use bb code img) -__-'

http://www.escuelapoker10.com/archivos/tabla_outs_odds_porcentajes.pdf

I take these two as an example because it has percentages , the table of this site do not

okay
the percentage is calculated in this way

9 outs
47-9 = 38/9 = 4,22

4,22: 1

percentage

1 / 4.22 = 0.23

23%

but in the tables show that 9 outs are 19.1%
or the rule of Gordon (2 and 4)
9 * 2 = 18%
so
if 19.1%
47/9 = 5,22
5,22:1
1 / 5.22 = 0.19
19%

Perhaps many people were calculating wrong.

Anything other , as calculated in 16 seconds!
I find it hard :p
 
vinnie

vinnie

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If I have 9 cards that help me, and 38 cards that don't, it means 4.22-1 against hitting. That is, I miss 4.22 times for each 1 time that I hit. You turn that into a fraction by 1 / (4.22 + 1), which gives you the ~19% you expect.

Think of it like flipping a coin. You win with heads, and lose with tails. Your odds are 1-1 (1 heads [win] to 1 tails [lose]). Your percentage is 1/2 (1 heads [win] divided by the total number of things that can happen 2). That's 50%.

Basically, you add both odds numbers together and divide by that, not just the other number.
 
John A

John A

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I try to tell people when I see posts like this... there's a free quiz program you can use to learn and test yourself on odds and outs and converting them to %'s. It's poker 101 and you need to know this in and out if you're going to play poker:

learn odds and outs


Know this stuff like the back of your hand.
 
R

rhombus

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Ignore all above and Stick a chart next to monitor ;):p
 
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