C
CrushingSouls
Enthusiast
Silver Level
Firstly not know if this is the right section.
So I played a hand before and this is how it went. (cash game) I had 77 in BB
There was an EP raise a SB call and I called in BB.
Flop is 987 with 2 hearts. SB donk bets 80% pot, I call, EP raises, then SB reraises making his raise 43% of my full stack. Now at the time I was sure at least one of them hit the straight then possibly either one was flushing or had a set.
I decide to push push allin for 100bb and both call Making the pot 307bb.
It turns out both of them had J10 (flopped straight), and both didn't have redraws for the flush. I lost the hand.
Afterwards I went on poker odds calculator to see if I was getting the right odds. Now on the flop against their two hands, they both had a 57% chance of tieing and I had a 35% of winning. With the pot 3 to 1 of my bet (my allin 100bb push) thats 33% odds. Because 35% is higher than 33%, in this current situation I played this correct because I was getting the proper odds? Someone answer this thanks
Also now if I take into account that either of them could have had a higher set, then I would have been drawing almost dead and therefore not getting good odds at all.
So my questions for the math wizzes are. In this hand KNOWING what hands they had were they good odds? Then not knowing what hands they had is this something you have to fold as you are either drawing for a fullhouse or you are dead.
So I played a hand before and this is how it went. (cash game) I had 77 in BB
There was an EP raise a SB call and I called in BB.
Flop is 987 with 2 hearts. SB donk bets 80% pot, I call, EP raises, then SB reraises making his raise 43% of my full stack. Now at the time I was sure at least one of them hit the straight then possibly either one was flushing or had a set.
I decide to push push allin for 100bb and both call Making the pot 307bb.
It turns out both of them had J10 (flopped straight), and both didn't have redraws for the flush. I lost the hand.
Afterwards I went on poker odds calculator to see if I was getting the right odds. Now on the flop against their two hands, they both had a 57% chance of tieing and I had a 35% of winning. With the pot 3 to 1 of my bet (my allin 100bb push) thats 33% odds. Because 35% is higher than 33%, in this current situation I played this correct because I was getting the proper odds? Someone answer this thanks
Also now if I take into account that either of them could have had a higher set, then I would have been drawing almost dead and therefore not getting good odds at all.
So my questions for the math wizzes are. In this hand KNOWING what hands they had were they good odds? Then not knowing what hands they had is this something you have to fold as you are either drawing for a fullhouse or you are dead.