This is a discussion on Odds for a flush draw within the online poker forums, in the Learning Poker section; Hey guys quick question I'm having a little trouble with the math of flush draw. So today at 12 cents game, there was 60 cents 


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Odds for a flush draw
Hey guys quick question I'm having a little trouble with the math of flush draw. So today at 12 cents game, there was 60 cents on the flop, my opponent had 60 cents and I had 60 cents(numbers simplified to be easier). He bet hard into the flop, I knew if I hit my flush I would win. I got all in and he called, I hit my flush and win. I know that at the flop I have 9 outs so 9x4 is 36%. so lets say 3to1. I'm wondering if my call was correct? there is 1.20$ in the pot and I have to put in 0.60 so those are 2to1 odds right? that would make my call a mistake then. Or when I call the pot will be 1.80$ including my bet so I put 0.60 to win 1.80$ so that would make it 3to1 and would make my call correct?
Also I'm looking for a poker math book that will help me with these equations. I want to learn to calculate them but I'm looking for a simple book, as you can understand from my post math isn't my strong point lol. Anyone can suggest me some math books that aren't heavy and will help me? poker math that matters,poker math made easy, mathematics of poker are some names that I found, should I buy any of those or any suggestions? Thanks a lot for any input guys. 
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If you have time, take a look at few other examples here. (5th point) Quote:
"Poker Math That Matters" is also a well known book. 
#3




re: Poker & Odds for a flush draw
Fknife thanks for your reply. I checked the examples you mentioned, so my risk is 0.06 and my reward is 0.06+1.2. so according to the formulas, 0.06/1.8=0.33. that means with this betting if I want to be profitable my flush has to hit atleast 33% of the time.
Could you explain the 2:1 or 1.7:1 that you first mentioned? I'm really confused. So I have 36% chance of getting there according to rule of 4. So the odds I'm getting now are higher than 33% so that would make my call a profitable one I guess? but I'm confused with 2:1. do we add 2+1=3. and 2:1 means that 1 in 3 times I will get to my flush. because the reason I said 3:1 was I thought I would get there 1 in 3 times but if I say it like 3:1 that makes it 1 in 4 times I get there, because we would add 3+1=4? I hope my english was clear, if you didn't quite get what I meant I can try to rephrase it. thanks a lot for your help. 
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When it comes to going the other way, say you have 36% of making the best hand (just like in your example). 36% means: you win 36 times out of 100 tries which also means that you will lose 100  36 = 64 times. Now, you just have to write it down as the odds against (lose:win) which is 64:36. You can simplify this further to 1.7:1. That's pretty much it, really... And yea, with all those pot odds, you just have to make sure (in theory) that you will win at least that % that you are being offered by pot odds to be profitable. 