Math Question

S

sjamey

Rising Star
Bronze Level
Joined
Jan 21, 2012
Total posts
1
Chips
0
Can someone answer this? Floping one pair or better holding lets say A,K. 44/50 * 43/49 * 42/48 = 79464/117600 = 67.6%. 100 - 67.6% = 32.4%. Now, why doesnt this work? 1 out of 3 As or 3 Ks hits on the first card and then it doesnt matter about the remaing two. 6/50 * 49/49 * 48/48 = 14112/117600 = 36%. I know this is wrong but I need to know why. Also, whenever calculating odds, what determins wether you should calculate the odds of it not happening and then subtracting from 1. In otherwords is there some kind of rule as when its best to do this. Thanks in advance and I hope I didnt make this to confusing.
 
Arjonius

Arjonius

Legend
Silver Level
Joined
Jun 8, 2005
Total posts
3,167
Chips
0
When the first card pairs one in your hand, the odds of one pair or better become 100% since it has already happened.
 
Top