Can someone answer this? Floping one pair or better
holding lets say A,K. 44/50 * 43/49 * 42/48 = 79464/117600 = 67.6%. 100 - 67.6% = 32.4%. Now, why doesnt this work? 1 out of 3 As or 3 Ks hits on the first card and then it doesnt matter about the remaing two. 6/50 * 49/49 * 48/48 = 14112/117600 = 36%. I know this is wrong but I need to know why. Also, whenever calculating odds
, what determins wether you should calculate the odds of it not happening and then subtracting from 1. In otherwords is there some kind of rule as when its best to do this. Thanks in advance and I hope I didnt make this to confusing.