Originally Posted by Poker Orifice
There's ~11,000 in the pot.... you bet 5k.. .villain shoves ALLin... it cost you 17k to call a pot of 30k.... you're getting less than 2to1.
If you're holding two overs to a paired board (paired flop)..you're drawing to only 6outs if villain holds a pair,.... meaning you have a 24% chance of improving your hand for the win (if villain isn't on AA or KK that is). You are more than a 3to1 dog in the hand... and pot is giving you less than 2to1... therefore the call is a 'bad call' (not a profitable call... especially if it's a good chunk of your stack).
get it? Hope this helps!
That makes sense. However, this is what I don't understand (and this is why someone like me would make the call because I see it differently--and please explain why my seeing it this way is wrong):
Let's use you the situation again. 11k in the pot, and after the flop I bet 6k (I remembered that number specifically), and villain pushes all in--and it's only 9k more for me to call.
So, at this specific moment, isn't there is technically 32k available for me to win? (11k, plus the 6k I bet, plus the 15k the villian pushed in), and (since the money I already bet is already in and not retreivable) it would cost me only 9k more to call. Isn't putting 9k in a 32k pot make the pot odds 3.5to1? Which would make my 3to1 underdog call just about equal and therefore a decent call and not necessarily a bad one?
Please explain if this is somehow incorrect.