Originally Posted by DaReKa
Subtract PFR from VPIP for calling/limping range. That should give you the % of hands they're calling or limping with. To figure out what kind of hands make up that %, take note of what they show down with, or make assumptions about what they might have based on how they play a hand when it doesn't make it to showdown. When you have more information about what kind of hands they're calling with, construct a likely range.
Sorry, I'm still in the dark... Maybe we are talking at cross purposes... let me give you an example....
Let's say I have 100 hands seated on Button.
Suppose I'm calling with only small and medium pairs, suited broadway, AQ
and betting with these plus high pairs J-J-AA plus AK (which I'm 3-betting when there is a bet before me). And I never limp.
Lets say during an infinitly long session I enter the pot from the button only with these hands: 22 (0,45%),33 (0,45%),44 (0,45%),55 (0,45%), 66 (0,45)%,77 (0,45)% ,88 0,45%), 99 (0,45%) 10-10 (0,45%) KQ (1,2%), AJ (1,2%), QJs (0,3%), AQ (1,2%), AK (1,2%), JJ (0,45%), QQ (0,34%), KK (0,45%), AA (0,45%). This range is 13*0,45%+4*1,2%+0,3%=11%.
Lets's assume in half of those occasions I'm first to act, in the other half - there's a bet before me.
Then in the first half my VPIP and PFR will be the same - 11%,
in the second half I will 3 bet 3% and call 8%.
If we put this figures together my stats from this position will be:
VPIP 11%, PFR 7% ((3+11)/2), 3 bet 3%.
How on earth from these figures can a villain determine my calling range?
11%-7%=4%!!! But it is not my calling range here!!! It is 8% (11%-3%)!!!