How is 2:1 a break even act?

It said to be, two losses and 1 win.


If we make a 1000 dollar call twice, we lose 2000 dollars. But if we win once, we win 2000 dollars. Assuming we're talking about the money not being dead money, how can 2:1 be a break even act?

If we consider the 2000 being canceled by the two 1 thousands, why aren't we considering half the money being ours initially?

So realistically speaking, we're only making a 1000 dollar profit while the other 1000 being ours opponents- this cannot be a profitable call because we're losing 2000 dollars and only profiting 1000 back on the win.

Everyone: please explain this in detail. I've tried understanding it countess times; knowing the initial 1000 is dead money, but realistically speaking, we're still losing in the long run.

If there's 1000 in the pot, then he bets 1000, that makes the pot 2000. If you call, the pot is 3000.

Imagine this happens 3 times. So, 3 calls x 1000 ea. = 3000. And you win 1 pot, so you get back 3000.

1 out of 3 = 2:1

Yes I understand the third game would cancel the 3 calls however, if we're speaking in terms of heads up, wouldn't the 3000 be only half profitable, and the other half being our initial investment?

OpenArms said:

Yes I understand the third game would cancel the 3 calls however, if we're speaking in terms of heads up, wouldn't the 3000 be only half profitable, and the other half being our initial investment?

Click to expand...

Half the first 1000 was in your stack before the hand started, but once you put money or chips into the pot, you can't take it back. So it's no longer yours. It's simply in the pot.