Hand ranges with VPIP question

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GreatLeslie

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I'm a bit confused as Equilab software seems to go against what I believe. My belief is that someone with a VPIP of 17% let's say is obviously very tight, and if they were in a heads up pot against someone with a 35% VPIP, and the flop came 532 Rainbow, that the person with the higher VPIP would be at an advantage correct?

My reasoning: The person who has the lower VPIP won't be playing marginal hands like 56 or 45 to make small pairs on flops like this, where as the person with the higher VPIP would be at an advantage in this situation as they play more hands, is this correct? Am I right?
 
Fknife

Fknife

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If Equilab tells you otherwise then your belief is unfortunately wrong. On a side note: what that software does, is it calculates an equity - which is basically a way to average the outcomes of each hand in a given range over all possible board runouts. Even though a 35% VPIP guy can have 56s and sometimes be ahead (but he will also have lots of other hands that missed completely, look at a 35% VPIP range and what small fraction those hands you mentioned make!), a 17% VPIP guy ON AVERAGE will be ahead because ON AVERAGE he will make better hands (eg: AA-99 vs 56 on that 532r flop).
 
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GreatLeslie

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Right, so the equity is a basis for the average amounts of times that player would win vs the other player? rather than in that particular hand?
 
Fknife

Fknife

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Yes, so if you put AA vs 72o into Equilab, the software would generate all possible boards and count how many times each hand has won at each runout. Obviously there are boards on which AA will be crushed by 72o (eg: 722KJ), which is why AA do not have 100% equity, but "on average" they will win about 88% of time against that particular hand if you were to gii preflop (hand vs range, range vs range calculations run in a similar way).
 
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