Doubts about percentage of hands

skavenger said:

Hi comunity , I have one doubt about % of range of hands , if someone can help me , I am grateful right now !

If a player is marked by hold'manager , opening 25 % of hands when the action comes GAP, in the war of blinds , that is to say , he plays 25 % of his hands ? as is the reasoning behind that would be : 66 + , A2s + , + K6s , Q8s + , + J8s , T8s + , + A7o , K9o + , + QTo , JTo ?


Basically , I want to know if the number of vezess it opens in the war of blinds , is the same as the range of the number of it?

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Theromeo2k said:

If I read your question right, my answer is no. If someone has a PFR of 25% overall it doesn't have to be 25% when this person opens from the blinds. Typically, people tend to steal looser from the blinds (depending on the person ofc) so their PFR or STL attempts may be 50% for example. The 25% just summarizes all of the times that this person opens from ALL positions. If you're not sure how wide someone is likely to be opening just go look at their specific stats if you're using software.

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skavenger said:

Exactly what I wanted to know , thank you !!! I do not OSU the softwarem ... JUST THAT stayed with doubt , because I heard someone TALK ,not make sense one percentage of '' open raize UO open limp '' This person , be equal to the percentage varies Hand Possible paragraph ALS. ..but agora became clear to me, grateful and good week for All YOU!

gg my friendss!

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