Originally Posted by HooDooKoo
As previously posted, a 4 to 1 favorite is the same as an 80% favorite. A 4-to-1- favorite will win four times out of five (in the long run).
And, for your reference, you're using the word "possibility" when you mean "probability". We all understood what you meant, but you should try and use probability in discussions like these going forward.
Oh that's a good point, sorry for that mistake.. it's a probability of course.
Now the thing it's quite clear to me. But anyway I'm just wondering if, from different point of view, the same situation can't be expressed as 4 to 1 as well as 5 to 1. 4:1 is partition of wins out of 5 total runs (of course in the long run). 5:1 represents how often will worse hand win in the ttal number of runs (in this example out of 5, the less number of runs the bigger probability to win). In both cases, opponent have 20% equity if you convert it. It's just my point of view, maybe it's a non-sense. What do you think?