Z
Zer0-0uts
Rock Star
Silver Level
So we all know it is a bad move to call all of your chips off with a measly top pair. Let's look at two different hand scenarios.
Hand 1
You have AA. You raise your standard pre-flop amount. You get one caller. The flop comes 9T4. You bet post flop. The villain re-raises all in and you call. Now all of the sudden you have no chips left because the villain called your pre-flop raise with 44 and flopped a set.
Hand 2
You have AA. You raise your standard pre-flop amount. You get one player who pushes all in. Excited that you got action on your pocket aces, you snap call. This hand has the same flop scenario. The turn and river are both blanks for you. Again, you have no chips left.
Why is scenario 1 seen as a bad play, but 2 is seen as a bad beat?
Hand 1
You have AA. You raise your standard pre-flop amount. You get one caller. The flop comes 9T4. You bet post flop. The villain re-raises all in and you call. Now all of the sudden you have no chips left because the villain called your pre-flop raise with 44 and flopped a set.
Hand 2
You have AA. You raise your standard pre-flop amount. You get one player who pushes all in. Excited that you got action on your pocket aces, you snap call. This hand has the same flop scenario. The turn and river are both blanks for you. Again, you have no chips left.
Why is scenario 1 seen as a bad play, but 2 is seen as a bad beat?